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Exam (elaborations)

EFMB Exam Study Guide

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EFMB Exam Study Guide EFMB Exam Study Guide EFMB Exam Study Guide

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  • September 22, 2024
  • 38
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • EFMB
  • EFMB
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lectjoseph
EFMB Exam Study Guide
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior (AP)
chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) - VERIFIED ANSWER Portable
X-Ray Machine



T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluations (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable - VERIFIED ANSWER
False, Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluations has largely been replaced by Computed Tomography.



What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography Scanner? - VERIFIED
ANSWER Role 3



What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable X-Ray Machine? - VERIFIED ANSWER Role
2



Members of the trauma team should have ____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the
trauma bay for radiation safety. - VERIFIED ANSWER Lead



Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any
personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the X-Ray unit. The
recommended minimal distance is - VERIFIED ANSWER 6 Feet



While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it
has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma
patients. FAST stands for - VERIFIED ANSWER Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for
Trauma



FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specifically of - VERIFIED ANSWER 98%



T/F: The FAST exam remains one of the most sensitive tests for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric
injury. - VERIFIED ANSWER FALSE (Correct Answer is Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage or DPL)



T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologist, surgeons, and emergency
physiciVERIFIED ANSWER can perform and interpret FAST scVERIFIED ANSWER in the emergency
department on a handheld portable device. - VERIFIED ANSWER TRUE

,A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a
standard 3-7 MHz curved array ___ probe - VERIFIED ANSWER Ultra Sound



The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ___ in certain parts of
the body. - VERIFIED ANSWER Intraperitoneal fluid



When you perform a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? - VERIFIED ANSWER Liver and Kidney



When preforming a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? - VERIFIED ANSWER Spleen and Kidney



An 18g ____ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. - VERIFIED ANSWER
Antecubital



T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ
enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - VERIFIED ANSWER True



T/F: When preforming Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning
protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration. -
VERIFIED ANSWER False (We should use pediatric settings/doses/and contrast administration)



T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically
ahead of time as well as have CD created to send with the patients as a backup. - VERIFIED ANSWER
True



T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute management of
combat trauma was extensively established during Operation Enduring Freedom. - VERIFIED
ANSWER False (MRI in the acute management of combat trauma has not been established)



All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic screening of
injuries. - VERIFIED ANSWER Role 3

,T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - VERIFIED ANSWER False
(Service members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise or noise greater than 140dB are at
high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent hearing loss.



The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - VERIFIED ANSWER Hearing Loss, Tinnitus (ringing in the
ear), Aural Fullness, Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise), Difficulty localizing sounds, Difficulty
hearing in a noisy background, Vertigo



Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either _____or____. -
VERIFIED ANSWER Temporary or Permanent



The ear, specifically the_____, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. - VERIFIED
ANSWER Tympanic Membrane



T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. - VERIFIED ANSWER True



The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the first ___
after injury. - VERIFIED ANSWER 8 weeks



Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of
facial movement using the ___ scale. - VERIFIED ANSWER House-Brackmann Grading



T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided
regardless of contraindications. - VERIFIED ANSWER False (Do not administer if contraindicated)



Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - VERIFIED ANSWER Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
following a blast injury, Otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures, Secondary fractures of the
inner ear, Vestibular nerves, Trauma induced endolymphatic hydrops, Activation of subclinical
superior semicircular canal dehiscence.



All service members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus, muffled
hearing, fullness in the ear) should - VERIFIED ANSWER be educated and directed to self-report for
evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practical.



What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the middle
ear? - VERIFIED ANSWER Treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical

, antibiotic (e.g., 4 drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear 3 times a day
for 7 days.) Do not irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain and vertigo



Hearing loss that persists ___ after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram. - VERIFIED
ANSWER 72 Hours



T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - VERIFIED ANSWER True



All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus follow blast exposure should - VERIFIED
ANSWER have the exposure documented and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as
possible.



Patients with TTS greater than ___ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be considered
candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not otherwise
contraindicated. - VERIFIED ANSWER 25dB



What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? - VERIFIED
ANSWER A comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40%
Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)



Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk for
hypothermia. - VERIFIED ANSWER 20%



T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters
and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or wet clean sheet. - VERIFIED ANSWER False. You
must immediately interrupt the burning process and address any life-threatening bleeding, airway
compromise, or tension pneumothorax as directed by Tactical Combat Casualty Care guidelines.



Calculate a burn patients initial burn size using the Rule of - VERIFIED ANSWER Nines



Which type of burn is not included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for fluid
resuscitation? - VERIFIED ANSWER Superficial (1st Degree) Burns



Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - VERIFIED ANSWER Partial
thickness burns (2nd Degree)

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