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NU 608 Porths Chapter 46 Exam Questions and Correct Detailed Answers with Rationales (Already Graded A+)

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NU 608 Porths Chapter 46 Exam Questions and Correct Detailed Answers with Rationales (Already Graded A+) What is the primary reason that the nurse urges clients to be seen by their health care provider when they have genital warts? A. To have an MRI to screen for other conditions B. To be informed of the risk of premalignant and malignant changes C. To be informed of the chance of transmitting to others D. To receive intravenous antibiotics - Answer- B. Rationale: The association with premalignant and malignant changes has increased concern regarding the diagnosis and treatment of this viral infection. Intravenous antibiotics are not used to treat viruses. The client does not have to see the health care provider to be told that they have a risk of transmitting this condition to others. There are several pharmacologic treatments for symptomatic removal of visible genital warts, and cryotherapy is one of them. Which clients would the nurse determine are at increased risk of infection with gonorrhea? Select all that apply. A. The client who has constant urinary tract pain B. The client who married late in life C. The client with multiple sexual partners D The client who does not use condoms E. The client who is younger than 25 years of age - Answer- C. D. E. Rationale: Clients who are identified as being at increased risk of infection include those who are 25 and under, have multiple sexual partners, and do not use condoms. Clients who marry late in life or have constant urinary tract pain are not documented to be at increased risk. A teenage female client who is being seen in the family medicine clinic for an annual physical exam reports being sexually active. What should the nurse plan to teach the client? Select all that apply. A. The importance of annual PAP smears for early detection of cervical cancer B. Importance of being tested for chlamydia infection C. Problems with infertility associated with human papillomavirus (HPV) D. Information on immunization for herpes simplex E. The development of vaccines to protect against specific human papillomavirus (HPV) strains - Answer- A. B. E. Rationale: The rates of many STIs are highest among adolescents. According to CDC estimates, chlamydial infections reported from each of the 50 states and the District of Columbia equaled approximately 1.3 million new cases in 2010, predominantly among people younger than 25 years of age. The CDC estimates about twice the reported number of people are actually infected with chlamydia. Testing for chlamydia is recommended for all sexually active females under age 25 by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Human papillomavirus (HPV) can increase risk of cervical cancer, and PAP smears should be performed annually for early detection. There is no vaccine available for herpes simplex, and herpes simplex infection does not cause cervical cancer.

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NU 608 Porths Chapter 46
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NU 608 Porths Chapter 46

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NU 608 Porths Chapter 46 Exam
Questions and Correct Detailed
Answers with Rationales (Already
Graded A+)

What is the primary reason that the nurse urges clients to be seen by their health care
provider when they have genital warts?
A. To have an MRI to screen for other conditions
B. To be informed of the risk of premalignant and malignant changes
C. To be informed of the chance of transmitting to others
D. To receive intravenous antibiotics - Answer- B. Rationale:
The association with premalignant and malignant changes has increased concern
regarding the diagnosis and treatment of this viral infection. Intravenous antibiotics are
not used to treat viruses. The client does not have to see the health care provider to be
told that they have a risk of transmitting this condition to others. There are several
pharmacologic treatments for symptomatic removal of visible genital warts, and
cryotherapy is one of them.

Which clients would the nurse determine are at increased risk of infection with
gonorrhea? Select all that apply.
A. The client who has constant urinary tract pain
B. The client who married late in life
C. The client with multiple sexual partners
D The client who does not use condoms
E. The client who is younger than 25 years of age - Answer- C. D. E. Rationale:
Clients who are identified as being at increased risk of infection include those who are
25 and under, have multiple sexual partners, and do not use
condoms. Clients who marry late in life or have constant urinary tract pain are not
documented to be at increased risk.

A teenage female client who is being seen in the family medicine clinic for an annual
physical exam reports being sexually active. What should the nurse
plan to teach the client? Select all that apply.
A. The importance of annual PAP smears for early detection of cervical cancer
B. Importance of being tested for chlamydia infection
C. Problems with infertility associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)
D. Information on immunization for herpes simplex

, E. The development of vaccines to protect against specific human papillomavirus (HPV)
strains - Answer- A. B. E. Rationale:
The rates of many STIs are highest among adolescents. According to CDC estimates,
chlamydial infections reported from each of the 50 states and the
District of Columbia equaled approximately 1.3 million new cases in 2010,
predominantly among people younger than 25 years of age. The CDC estimates
about twice the reported number of people are actually infected with chlamydia. Testing
for chlamydia is recommended for all sexually active females under
age 25 by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Human papillomavirus
(HPV) can increase risk of cervical cancer, and PAP smears should be
performed annually for early detection. There is no vaccine available for herpes simplex,
and herpes simplex infection does not cause cervical cancer.

The public health nurse is presenting a program on the prevalence of STIs. Which
information should be included in the presentation? Select all that apply.
A. STis are only bacterial.
B. Partners of infected persons are easy to find and treat.
C. Condoms do not prevent the spread of STIs.
D. Drugs can manage infections but do not control the spread.
E. STIs may be asymptomatic. - Answer- D. E. Rationale:
Many factors contribute to the increased prevalence and the continued spread of STIs.
STIs are frequently asymptomati. Partners of infected persons are
often difficult to notify and treat. Condoms could prevent the spread of many STIs, but
they often are not used or are used improperly. In addition, there
currently are no cures for viral STIs; although there are drugs available that may help to
manage the infections, they do not entirely control the spread. Also,
drug-resistant microorganisms are rapidly emerging, making treatment of many STIs
more difficult.

When counseling a client who is 3 months' pregnant and who recently went on a
vacation to South America where she received several mosquito bites, the biggest
complication the provider should prepare her for is delivering a child with which type(s)
of defect?
Select all that apply.
A. Spina bifida
B. Microcephaly
C. Eye concerns
D. Bilateral hip dysplasia
E. Hearing problems - Answer- B. C. E. Rationale:
Zika virus show few symptoms. If the woman is infected by Zika during prenancy,
severe birth defects can occur, such as microcephaly, brain defects, hearing and eye
defects, and impaired growth. Spina bifida is a birth defect that occurs when the spine
and spinal cord do not form properly. It falls under the broader category of neural tube
defects. The neural tube is the embryonic structure that eventually develops into the
infant's brain and spinal cord and the tissues that enclose them. A folic acid deficiency
during pregnancy also plays a significant role. Hip dysplasia is the medical term for a

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NU 608 Porths Chapter 46

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