NR509 Advanced Physical Assessment MidtermExam Review 160 Questions and Answers
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NR509 Advanced Physical Assessment
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NR509 Advanced Physical Assessment
NR509 Advanced Physical Assessment
MidtermExam Review 160 Questions and
Answers
1. When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes
20/30 in the left eye and20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye
NR509 Advanced Physical Assessment
MidtermExam Review 160 Questions and
Answers
1. When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes
20/30 in the left eye and20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye
chart. This means:
a) have the patient returning in two weeks for a follow up vision screen
b) dilated the eye and retest
c) refer the patient to an ophthalmologist
d) document this as a normal finding
2. Which lesion is dark raised and asymmetric with irregular border?
a) Nevus
b) Actinic keratosis
c) Keratoacanthoma
d) Melanoma
3. A pediatric patient has areas of scaling on the scalp with round
patches of alopecia. Thisclinical finding is consistent with:
a) Tinea capitis
b) Seborrheic dermatitis
c) Trichotillomania
d) Alopecia areata
4. During the breast examination of a perimenopausal woman the
NP detects a bloodyspontaneous discharge from the right nipple.
This indicates further evaluation.
a) Fibroadenoma
b) Polycystic breast disease Generalized breast pain or tenderness.
Green or dark brownnonbloody nipple discharge that tends to leak
without pressure or squeezing
c) An intraductal papilloma
d) Pituitary prolactinoma
Intraductal papillomas are usually solitary and smaller than 1 cm. They are
located in largelactiferous sinuses or ducts and have a tendency to bleed.
5. What medication should be avoided when prescribe prophylactic therapy
, for headache
a) Verapamil
b) Propranolol
c) Venlataxin (Effexor)
d) Nimodipine
Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake inhibitor have the most serious side
effect. Patients should have drug free period for 3-4 weeks after every 6
months of treatment (pharmacology book page1047)
6. Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical finding of
hyperprolactinemia in a 47-year-old premenopausal woman?
a) Hirsutism
b) Gynecomastia
c) Oligomenorrhea
d) Acne
Hyperprolactinemia causes typical symptoms in premenopausal women
and in men, but not inpostmenopausal women. Premenopausal women
— Hyperprolactinemia in premenopausal women causes hypogonadism,
with symptoms that include infertility, oligomenorrhea, or amenorrhea
and less often galactorrhea. (uptodate.com/clinical-manifestations)
7. Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include
all of the followingEXCEPT:
a) new onset after age 50
b) aggravated or relieved by change of position
c) precipitated by Valsalva maneuver
d) Headache relieved with mild infrequent use of analgesics
8. Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of
substance abuse inadolescents?
a) Poor school performance
b) change in sleep habits
c) increased blood pressure
d) changes in behavior
9. Anticholinergics are indicated for the treatment of
a) Asymptomatic bacteriuria
b) Renal insufficiency
c) Urge incontinence
d) Overflow incontinence
,Anticholinergics are drugs that block the action of acetylcholine.
Anticholinergics can treat a variety of conditions, including: urinary
incontinence, overactive bladder, COPD, They also help block involuntary
muscle movements associated with certain diseases such as Parkinson’s
disease.
10. Symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation are associated with:
a) Hiatal hernia
b) Gastroesophageal reflux
c) Peptic ulcer disease
d) Esophageal cancer
Classic GERD symptoms are: Heartburn, Regurgitation: bitter, acidic fluid
in the mouth whenlying down or bending over
11. A 38-year-old patient with a history of abdominal pain presents to the
nurse practitioner. Findings reveal superficial edema and bruising in
the subcutaneous fatty tissue around theumbilicus. Hemorrhagic
pancreatic is suspected because of which finding?
a) A positive Gray Turner’s sign
b) A positive Cullen’s sign
c) Kaposi’s sarcoma
d) Petechiae
12. Which of the following drugs is not contraindicated for
concurrent use with warfarin(Coumadin)?
a) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
b) Trimethroprim/sulfamethaxazole (Bactrim)
c) Cirpofloxacin (Cipro)
d) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
13. Osteosarcoma in a pediatric patient is most often diagnosed when there is:
a) Pain in the affected bone
b) Pathologic fracture
c) Repeat fracture
d) Apophyseal avulsion
Osteosarcoma is the most common type of bone cancer in children and
teens. Bone pain and tenderness the most common symptom. It arises
, most often in the wide ends of long bones, suchas the femur and tibia in
the upper and lower leg, and the humerus in the upper arm
.
14. Unilateral rhinitis could be caused by all of the following except
a) A foreign body in the nasal canal
b) A nasal polyp
c) Drug induced rhinitis
d) A deviated sputum
15. Why would a child diagnosed with beta thalassemia and hemosiderosis
receive deferoxamine(desferal)?
a) To prevent blood transfusion reactions
b) To simulate red blood cell production
c) To improve the oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs
d) To eliminate excessive iron and prevent organ damage
given SQ by pump overnight to prevent free iron released with RBC
destruction from buildingup in tissues; binds the free iron so it doesn't
do damage in tissues (Quizlet Hematology and Oncology Unit 6)
16. An 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is at increased risk of:
a) Constipation
b) Fecal incontinence
c) Urinary tract infections
d) Prostate cancer
BPH increases the risk of: Acute urinary retention , UTI and Sepsis.
17. What two vitamins and minerals should be included in oral
multivitamins in women
a) Folic Acid and Vitamin C
b) Iron and Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin D and Iron
d) Folic Acid and Iron
18. A patient present with decreased hearing related to antibiotic use.
Which class of antibioticsis this?
a) Aminoglycosides
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