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NURS 8022 Complete Course Exam Package (2024 Edition) | Latest Exam Questions with Verified Correct Answers | A+ Graded | Brand New and Fully Updated
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repare confidently with the NURS 8022 Complete Course Exam Package (2024 Edition). This comprehensive package includes the latest, verified exam questions and correct answers for Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, and the Final Exam. Meticulously updated for 2024, this package is designed to help you achieve ...

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  • October 1, 2024
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Practice Questions
1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the positive
symptoms of schizophrenia?
o A) Serotonin
o B) Dopamine
o C) Norepinephrine
o D) GABA


Answer: B) Dopamine Explanation: The positive symptoms of
schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, are thought to be
related to hyperactivity of dopamine pathways in the brain.

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of antipsychotic
medications?
o A) Hypertension
o B) Bradycardia
o C) Extrapyramidal symptoms
o D) Hyperglycemia


Answer: C) Extrapyramidal symptoms Explanation: Antipsychotic
medications, especially first-generation antipsychotics, can cause
extrapyramidal symptoms, which include tremors, rigidity, and
bradykinesia.

3. Which neuroimaging technique is most useful for studying the
structural abnormalities in the brains of patients with
schizophrenia?
o A) Electroencephalography (EEG)
o B) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
o C) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
o D) Functional MRI (fMRI)


Answer: B) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) Explanation: MRI is
commonly used to detect structural abnormalities in the brain, such as
enlarged ventricles, which are often seen in patients with schizophrenia.

,4. Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication primarily used for:
o A) First-line treatment of schizophrenia
o B) Treatment-resistant schizophrenia
o C) Bipolar disorder
o D) Major depressive disorder


Answer: B) Treatment-resistant schizophrenia Explanation: Clozapine
is often reserved for patients with schizophrenia who do not respond to
other antipsychotic medications due to its risk of serious side effects like
agranulocytosis.

5. Which dopamine pathway is most associated with the therapeutic
effects of antipsychotic medications?
o A) Mesolimbic pathway
o B) Nigrostriatal pathway
o C) Tuberoinfundibular pathway
o D) Mesocortical pathway


Answer: A) Mesolimbic pathway Explanation: The mesolimbic
pathway is associated with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, and
its modulation by antipsychotic medications helps reduce these
symptoms.

6. Which of the following is a key feature of the glutamate hypothesis
of schizophrenia?
o A) Excessive glutamate activity in the prefrontal cortex
o B) Reduced glutamate activity in the prefrontal cortex
o C) Increased glutamate activity in the hippocampus
o D) Decreased glutamate activity in the basal ganglia


Answer: B) Reduced glutamate activity in the prefrontal
cortex Explanation: The glutamate hypothesis suggests that
hypofunction of NMDA receptors, particularly in the prefrontal cortex,
contributes to the symptoms of schizophrenia.

,7. Which class of drugs is primarily used to manage the negative
symptoms of schizophrenia?
o A) First-generation antipsychotics
o B) Second-generation antipsychotics
o C) Benzodiazepines
o D) Mood stabilizers


Answer: B) Second-generation antipsychotics Explanation: Second-
generation antipsychotics are more effective in managing the negative
symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal and apathy,
compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

8. Which of the following is an example of a neurobiological marker
that has been associated with schizophrenia?
o A) Increased levels of serotonin in the cerebrospinal fluid
o B) Enlarged lateral ventricles in the brain
o C) Decreased levels of norepinephrine in the blood
o D) Increased activity in the amygdala


Answer: B) Enlarged lateral ventricles in the
brain Explanation: Enlarged lateral ventricles are a common structural
abnormality observed in the brains of individuals with schizophrenia.

9. Which enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of dopamine in the
synaptic cleft?
o A) Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
o B) Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
o C) Acetylcholinesterase
o D) Glutamate decarboxylase


Answer: A) Monoamine oxidase (MAO) Explanation: Monoamine
oxidase (MAO) is an enzyme that breaks down dopamine, as well as
other monoamines, in the synaptic cleft.

, 10. Which of the following is a common mechanism of action for
atypical antipsychotics?
o A) Dopamine D2 receptor antagonism
o B) Serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
o C) Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
o D) GABA receptor agonism


Answer: B) Serotonin 5-HT2A receptor
antagonism Explanation: Atypical antipsychotics often work by
antagonizing serotonin 5-HT2A receptors, which helps to balance the
dopaminergic activity and reduce both positive and negative symptoms
of schizophrenia.

Practice Questions
11. Which of the following is a primary target for the
pharmacological treatment of schizophrenia?
o A) Dopamine D1 receptors
o B) Dopamine D2 receptors
o C) Serotonin 5-HT1A receptors
o D) Norepinephrine receptors


Answer: B) Dopamine D2 receptors Rationale:

o Correct: Dopamine D2 receptors are the primary target for most
antipsychotic medications, as blocking these receptors helps reduce the
positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
o Incorrect:
 A) Dopamine D1 receptors: These receptors are not the main target for
antipsychotic drugs.
 C) Serotonin 5-HT1A receptors: While some antipsychotics affect
serotonin receptors, the primary target is the D2 receptor.
 D) Norepinephrine receptors: These receptors are not primarily
involved in the treatment of schizophrenia.

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