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HESI SAUNDERS MATERNITY NURSING QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS.
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HESI SAUNDERS MATERNITY NURSINGQUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS.
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM ANS - REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
The nurse is preparing to teach a prenatal class about fetal circulation. Which statements should be
included in the teaching plan? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.)
1. "The ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the fetal lungs."
2. "One vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus."
3. "The normal fetal heart tone range is 140 to 160 beats per minute in early pregnancy."
4. "Two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta."
5. "Two veins carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste products away from the fetus to
the placenta." ANS - 1, 2, 4
The ductus arteriosus is a unique fetal circulation structure that allows the nonfunctioning lungs to
receive only a minimal amount of oxygenated blood for tissue maintenance. Oxygenated blood is
transported to the fetus by one umbilical vein. The normal fetal heart tone range is considered to be 110
to 160 beats per minute. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus, and the
umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood and provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. Blood pumped
by the embryo's heart leaves the embryo through two umbilical arteries.
The nursing instructor asks the student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus.
Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the ductus venosus?
1. "It connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta."
2. "It is an opening between the right and left atria."
3. "It connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava."
4. "It connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava." ANS - 3
,The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The foramen ovale is a
temporary opening between the right and left atria. The ductus arteriosus joins the aorta and the
pulmonary artery.
A pregnant client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the sex of her baby as soon as it can be
determined. The nurse informs the client that she should be able to find out the sex at 12 weeks'
gestation because of which factor?
1. The appearance of the fetal external genitalia
2. The beginning of differentiation in the fetal groin
3. The fetal testes are descended into the scrotal sac
4. The internal differences in males and females become apparent ANS - 1
By the end of the twelfth week, the external genitalia of the fetus have developed to such a degree that
the sex of the fetus can be determined visually. Differentiation of the external genitalia occurs at the
end of the ninth week. Testes descend into the scrotal sac at the end of the thirty-eighth week. Internal
differences in the male and female occur at the end of the seventh week.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at 38 weeks' gestation and notes that the fetal
heart rate (FHR) is 174 beats/minute. On the basis of this finding, what is the priority nursing action?
1. Document the finding.
2. Check the mother's heart rate.
3. Notify the health care provider (HCP).
4. Tell the client that the fetal heart rate is normal. ANS - 3
The FHR depends on gestational age and ranges from 160 to 170 beats/minute in the first trimester, but
slows with fetal growth to 110 to 160 beats/minute near or at term. At or near term, if the FHR is less
than 110 beats/minute or more than 160 beats/minute with the uterus at rest, the fetus may be in
distress. Because the FHR is increased from the reference range, the nurse should notify the HCP.
Options 2 and 4 are inappropriate actions based on the information in the question. Although the nurse
documents the findings, based on the information in the question, the HCP needs to be notified.
,The nurse is conducting a prenatal class on the female reproductive system. When a client in the class
asks why the fertilized ovum stays in the fallopian tube for 3 days, what is the nurse's best response?
1. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's chances of survival."
2. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to estrogen and progesterone."
3. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's normal implantation in the top portion of the uterus."
4. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone."
ANS - 3
The tubal isthmus remains contracted until 3 days after conception to allow the fertilized ovum to
develop within the tube. This initial growth of the fertilized ovum promotes its normal implantation in
the fundal portion of the uterine corpus. Estrogen is a hormone produced by the ovarian follicles, corpus
luteum, adrenal cortex, and placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the
corpus luteum of the ovary, adrenal glands, and placenta during pregnancy. Luteinizing hormone and
follicle-stimulating hormone are excreted by the anterior pituitary gland. The survival of the fertilized
ovum does not depend on it staying in the fallopian tube for 3 days.
The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to explain the characteristics of the amniotic fluid. The
student responds correctly by explaining which as characteristics of amniotic fluid? (SELECT ALL THAT
APPLY.)
1. Allows for fetal movement
2. Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus
3. Maintains the body temperature of the fetus
4. Can be used to measure fetal kidney function
5. Prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus
6. Provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus ANS - 1, 2,
3, 4
The amniotic fluid surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus. It allows the fetus to move freely and
maintains the body temperature of the fetus. In addition, the amniotic fluid contains urine from the
fetus and can be used to assess fetal kidney function. The placenta prevents large particles such as
bacteria from passing to the fetus and provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between
the mother and the fetus.
, A couple comes to the family planning clinic and asks about sterilization procedures. Which question by
the nurse should determine whether this method of family planning would be most appropriate?
1. "Did you ever had surgery?"
2. "Do you plan to have any other children?"
3. "Do either of you have diabetes mellitus?"
4. "Do either of you have problems with high blood pressure?" ANS - 2
Sterilization is a method of contraception for couples who have completed their families. It should be
considered a permanent end to fertility because reversal surgery is not always successful. The nurse
would ask the couple about their plans for having children in the future. Options 1, 3, and 4 are
unrelated to this procedure.
The nurse should make which statement to a pregnant client found to have a gynecoid pelvis?
1. "Your type of pelvis has a narrow pubic arch."
2. "Your type of pelvis is the most favorable for labor and birth."
3. "Your type of pelvis is a wide pelvis, but it has a short diameter."
4. "You will need a cesarean section because this type of pelvis is not favorable for a vaginal delivery."
ANS - 2
A gynecoid pelvis is a normal female pelvis and is the most favorable for successful labor and birth. An
android pelvis (resembling a male pelvis) would be unfavorable for labor because of the narrow pelvic
planes. An anthropoid pelvis has an outlet that is adequate, with a normal or moderately narrow pubic
arch. A platypelloid pelvis (flat pelvis) has a wide transverse diameter, but the anteroposterior diameter
is short, making the outlet inadequate.
Which purposes of placental functioning should the nurse include in a prenatal class? (SELECT ALL THAT
APPLY.)
1. It cushions and protects the baby.
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