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NR 326 Exam #2 Questions And Answers With Complete Solutions

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NR 326 Exam #2 Questions And Answers With Complete Solutions

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  • October 3, 2024
  • 152
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • NR 326
  • NR 326
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NR 326 Exam #2 Questions And Answers With Complete
Solutions

A charge nurse is discussing manifestations of schizophrenia
with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following
manifestations should the charge nurse identify as being
effectively treated by first‐generation antipsychotics? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Auditory hallucinations
B. Withdrawal from social situations
C. Delusions of grandeur
D. Severe agitation
E. Anhedonia Correct Answer A. CORRECT: positive
symptoms of schizophrenia (auditory hallucinations) are
effectively treated with first‐generation antipsychotics.
B. First‐generation antipsychotics have minimal effectiveness
with negative symptoms of schizophrenia (social withdrawal).
C. CORRECT: positive symptoms of schizophrenia (delusions
of grandeur) are effectively treated with first‐generation
antipsychotics.
D. CORRECT: positive symptoms of schizophrenia (severe
agitation) are effectively treated with first‐generation
antipsychotics.
E. First‐generation antipsychotics have minimal effectiveness
with negative symptoms of schizophrenia (anhedonia).

A charge nurse is discussing mirtazapine with a newly licensed
nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed
nurse indicates understanding?
A. "This medication increases the release of serotonin and
norepinephrine."

,B. "I should tell the client about the likelihood of insomnia
while taking this medication."
C. "This medication is contraindicated for clients who have an
eating disorder."
D. "Sexual dysfunction is a common adverse effect of this
medication." Correct Answer A. CORRECT: Mirtazapine
provides relief from depression by increasing the release of
serotonin and norepinephrine.
B. Tell the client about the likelihood of drowsiness rather than
insomnia when taking this medication.
C. Bupropion, rather than mirtazapine, is contraindicated in
clients who have an eating disorder.
D. Sexual dysfunction is an adverse effect of SSRIs rather than
mirtazapine.

A charge nurse is discussing the care of a client who has major
depressive disorder (MDD) with a newly licensed nurse. Which
of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "Care during the continuation phase focuses on treating
continued manifestations of MDD."
B. "The treatment of MDD during the maintenance phase lasts
for 6 to 12 weeks."
C. "The client is at greatest risk for suicide during the first
weeks of an MDD episode."
D. "Medication and psychotherapy are most effective during the
acute phase of MDD." Correct Answer A. The focus of the
continuation phase is relapse prevention. Treatment of
manifestations occurs during the acute phase of MDD.
B. The maintenance phase of treatment for MDD can last for 1
year or more.

,C. CORRECT: The client is at greatest risk for suicide during
the acute phase of MDD.
D. Medication therapy and psychotherapy are used during the
continuation phase to prevent relapse of MDD.

A charge nurse is discussing TMS with a new RN graduate.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. "TMS is indicated for clients who have schizophrenia
spectrum disorders."
b. "I will provide post anesthesia care following TMS."
c. "TMS treatments usually last 5-10 min."
d. "I will schedule the client for daily TMS treatments for the
first several weeks." Correct Answer d. "I will schedule the
client for daily TMS treatments for the first several weeks."

A charge nurse is discussing TMS with a newly licensed nurse.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "TMS is indicated for clients who have schizophrenia
spectrum disorders."
B. "I will provide postanesthesia care following TMS."
C. "TMS treatments usually last 5 to 10 minutes."
D. "I will schedule the client for TMS treatments 3 to 5 times a
week for the first several weeks." Correct Answer A. TMS is
indicated for the treatment of major depressive disorder that is
not responsive to pharmacological treatment. ECT is indicated
for the treatment of schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
B. postanesthesia care is not necessary after TMS because the
client does not receive anesthesia and is alert during the
procedure.

, C. The TMS procedure lasts 30 to 40 min.
D. CORRECT: TMS is commonly prescribed 3 to 5 times a
week for the first four to six weeks.

A charge nurse reviews one of the 5 stages of grief according to
Kubler-Ross:
a. Disequilibrium
b. Developing awareness
c. Restitution
d. Anger Correct Answer d. Anger

A client demonstrates speech w/a circuitous route before
reaching its goal; often needs redirection. Nursing action:
a. Speech is circumstantial, the nurse will redirect client
responses.
b. Speech has loose associations, the nurse will give scheduled
medications.
c. Speech is pressured, the nurse will offer the client a prn med.
d. Speech is tangential, the nurse will speak slower Correct
Answer a. Speech is circumstantial, the nurse will redirect client
responses.

A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder spends
many hours during the day and night washing hands. The nurse
should initially allow the client to continue this behavior
because it has what therapeutic effect for the client?
A.Relieves the client's anxiety
B.Decreases the chance of infection
C.Gives the client the feeling of self-control
D.Increases the client's sense of self-esteem Correct Answer
A.Relieves the client's anxiety

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