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FAA Aircraft Dispatcher Practical Exam Questions and Answers
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FAA Aircraft Dispatcher Practical Exam Questions and Answers
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FAA Aircraft Dispatcher Practical ExamQuestions and Answers
Are air carriers required to use preferred routes when filing flight plans? - ANSWER-
Prefered routes when available.
Are AIRMETs scheduled? How long are they good for? - ANSWER-AIRMETS ARE
scheduled 255, 855, 1455, 2055. They are good for 6 hours.
As a dispatcher, what course of action do you have to take if the original alternate that
you listed on the dispatch release goes below alternate minimums while the aircraft is
enroute? - ANSWER-The dispatch or flight release may be amended enroute to include
an alternate that is within fuel range of the aircraft and that would be capable of
supporting that type aircraft.
FAR 121.631
As an aircraft dispatcher, what considerations do you need to make if the APU is inop? -
ANSWER-Make sure that external electrical and pneumatic power (GPU/Air start) are
available at all airports of intended operation
Can a dispatcher ever be scheduled for more than 10 hours in a 24 hour period? If so,
how? - ANSWER-Yes, but the dispatcher is required to have 8 hours or rest time in
between the two shifts.
Define "accelerate stop distance". - ANSWER-The length of the takeoff run plus the
length of the Stopway, where provided.
Define Advection fog - ANSWER-This fog forms when moist air moves over colder
ground or water. Common along the coast.
Define Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) - ANSWER-Clear-air turbulence (CAT) is the
turbulent movement of air masses in the absence of any visual cues such as clouds,
and is caused when bodies of air moving at widely different speeds meet
Define dry line - ANSWER-A dry line is a boundary that separates a moist air mass from
a dry air mass. Also called a "Dew Point Front", sharp changes in dew point
temperature can be observed across a dry line.
Define Radiation fog - ANSWER-Shallow fog, ground fog. occurs on clear nights, little or
no wind, and small temp/DP spread (high relative humidity). Occurs at night or
daybreak. Radiation cools the ground. The ground cools the air. When the air is cooled
to the dew-point, fog forms.
,Define squall line - ANSWER-A squall line is a line of thunderstorms that can form along
or ahead of a cold front. The term was used as a synonym for cold front. It contains
heavy precipitation, hail, frequent lightning, strong straight-line winds, and possibly
tornadoes and waterspouts.
Define wake turbulence - ANSWER-Wake turbulence is turbulence that forms behind an
aircraft as it passes through the air. This turbulence includes various components, the
most important of which are wingtip vortices and jetwash.
Describe circulations associated with high pressure systems. - ANSWER-High pressure
= clockwise circulations
(Anti-cyclones)
Describe circulations associated with low pressure systems. - ANSWER-Low pressure =
counter-clockwise circulations
(Cyclones)
Describe Clear ice - ANSWER-Hard, heavy, tenacious, and glossy. Hard to
remove/detect
Describe mixed ice - ANSWER-Hard rough conglomerate
Describe Rime Ice - ANSWER-Brittle and frost-like
Describe those responsibilities shared by the dispatcher and the pilot in command. -
ANSWER-The dispatcher and the PIC have a contract between them concerning the
flight plan. They are each 50% for the flight plan. The dispatcher must provide the PIC
with the appropriate WX information and update it throughout the flight.
FAR 121.663
Do METARs describe actual or forecast conditions? - ANSWER-METARs depict actual
field conditions.
Does the Radar summary chart depict forecast conditions, or observed conditions? How
often? - ANSWER-Observed, hourly.
How and why does a temperature inversion occur in an occluded front? - ANSWER-A
temperature inversion occurs in an occluded front because the cold air masses push the
warm air mass up and above them, therefore warmer air will exist as altitude increases.
How are engine and wing anti-ice accomplished (what is the source of heat)? -
ANSWER-Thermal anti-ice system using 6th stage bleed air.
How are landing minimums affected if the pilot in command has fewer than 100 hours
as pilot in command of the particular type airplane to be flown? What is the specific
, regulation that applies? Does this also apply to the alternate minimums? - ANSWER-
The landing minimums are increased by:
Ceiling: 100ft
&
Visibility: 1/2 SM
FAR 121.652
It does not apply to alternates because if you have to go to an alternate, you really need
to land the plane.
How can the dispatcher determine whether RVSM operations are permitted? -
ANSWER-Op specs and you need autopilot
How can the dispatcher determine which kinds of navigation systems can be used for a
flight? - ANSWER-approved for the aircraft and what the flight route necessitates
How do the brakes work in the event of a B system failure? -
ANSWER-pneumatic/hydraulic backup breaking system
How does a VOR work? - ANSWER-Very High Frequency
Omni Directional
Radio Range
(VOR) is a type of short-range radio navigation system for aircraft, enabling aircraft with
a receiving unit to determine their position and stay on course by receiving radio signals
transmitted by a network of fixed ground radio beacons.
How does an anti-skid inop effect performance? - ANSWER-Weight penalties / No
tailwind permitted / no contaminated runway
How does an NDB work? - ANSWER-A low or medium frequency radio beacon
transmits non-directional signals whereby the pilot of an aircraft properly equipped can
determine bearings and "home" on the station.
How does GPS work? - ANSWER-GPS navigation utilizes ground based monitoring and
control stations along with A constellation of over 30 Navstar Satellites.
How does the AC power get converted to DC power? - ANSWER-Transformer rectifier
How does the pilot identify the Final Approach Fix (FAF) on a precision approach such
as the ILS? - ANSWER-When you begin the descent on the glideslope
How does the pilot identify the Missed Approach Point on a non - precision approach
such a VOR approach? - ANSWER-The Maltese Cross
How does the use of engine anti-ice affect performance? - ANSWER-Decreases
performance.
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