,1. Which CPT® code category is typically used to report
surgical procedures performed in an outpatient facility?
- A) Category I
- B) Category II
- C) Category III
- D) Category IV
Correct Answer: A) Category I
Rationale: Category I codes describe procedures and
services that are widely used and generally accepted in the
medical community. Surgical procedures typically fall under
this category.
2. What does the "modifier -59" in CPT® coding signify
when appended to a procedure code?
- A) Multiple procedures
- B) Reduced services
- C) Unrelated procedure by the same physician
- D) Distinct procedural service
Correct Answer: D) Distinct procedural service
Rationale: Modifier -59 is used to indicate that a
procedure or service was distinct or independent from other
services performed on the same day.
3. Which HCPCS Level II codes are used to report durable
medical equipment?
- A) J codes
- B) L codes
- C) K codes
- D) E codes
, Correct Answer: D) E codes
Rationale: HCPCS Level II "E" codes are used to
describe durable medical equipment (DME).
4. An ICD-10-CM code characterized by 'NOS' indicates:
- A) Not specified
- B) Not otherwise specified
- C) No other symptoms
- D) Not observed separately
Correct Answer: B) Not otherwise specified
Rationale: NOS stands for "not otherwise specified,"
indicating less specificity in the diagnosis description.
5. Which of the following is the correct sequencing for
coders when coding both acute and chronic conditions?
- A) Acute, Chronic
- B) Chronic, Acute
- C) Both simultaneously
- D) Order of appearance in the documentation
Correct Answer: A) Acute, Chronic
Rationale: When both acute and chronic conditions are
documented, the acute condition typically takes
precedence.
6. What is the primary purpose of a "GC" modifier when
used in Medicare billing?
- A) Global services
- B) Resident services not supervised
- C) Service performed in a critical care environment
- D) Service performed by a resident under supervision
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