NPTEFF 50 Question Mini Exam 2 Review Questions with Complete Solutions.
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NPTEFF 50
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NPTEFF 50
NPTEFF50Question MiniExam2Review Questions
withCompleteSolutions.
A patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dizziness and swaying to the right
side while walking. She had a viral infection about 2 weeks ago and was still recovering
from it when these symptoms started. She compl...
NPTEFF 50 Question Mini Exam 2 Review Questions
with Complete Solutions.
A patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dizziness and swaying to the right
side while walking. She had a viral infection about 2 weeks ago and was still recovering
from it when these symptoms started. She complains of feeling unsteady and nauseous
when walking down the aisle of the grocery store. Which of the following tests will MOST
LIKELY be positive while assessing this patient? - Correct Answers Head Thrust test
Symptoms such as ringing in the ears, swaying on one side and a history of viral infection
suggest labrynthitis or a unilateral vestibular hypofunction. A patient who has a unilateral
peripheral lesion will not be able to maintain gaze when the head is rotated quickly toward
the side of the lesion; hence, he will have a corrective saccade to maintain the gaze on the
target thus making the test positive. Cover-Uncover test is used to assess phoria or
alignment of the eye. Dix-Hallpike and Horizontal Roll test would be positive for BPPV.
A patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of numbness and tingling in the sole
of the left foot. On examination, all reflexes were found to be intact. However, you noticed
an absence of left heel off during ambulation, along with weakness of invertors of the left
foot. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause for this presentation? - Correct
Answers Tibial nerve neuropathy
Absence of heel off is indicative of weak plantar flexors. Weakness of plantar flexors is
found with S1 and tibial nerve involvement. However, the tibial nerve (and its branches)
supply the sole of the foot whereas S1 supplies mainly the lateral sole of the foot as well as
lateral plantar surface of the foot (as shown in the diagram). S1 radiculopathy would most
likely be associated with loss of plantar flexor reflex and weak evertors.
Superficial peroneal nerve injury would be associated with loss of sensation on the
anterolateral aspect of the lower leg.
L5 would be associated with weakness of dorsiflexors with loss of sensation only on the
medial side of the dorsal and plantar aspect of the foot.
You are treating an infant with delayed milestones. During the session, the mother notices
some dirt in the child's eye and tries to clean it with a tissue. The therapist notices that the
child did not blink when the mother touched the eye, but is able to blink otherwise. Which
of the following cranial nerves is MOST LIKELY impaired in this scenario? - Correct
Answers Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)
The sensory branch of trigeminal nerve (CN 5) controls the corneal reflex, which is tested
by touching the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. The oculomotor nerve (CN 3) controls
the pupillary reflex, not the corneal reflex. The motor branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN 5)
controls the muscles of mastication. The facial nerve (CN 7) controls the motor aspect of
the corneal reflex, which is blinking of the eye. In this case, we can rule out a facial nerve
(CN 7) injury because the child could blink the eye. An impaired vestibulocochlear nerve
(CN 8) would cause involuntary eye movements, which is not the case.
, An orthopedist refers to physical therapy a patient with advanced rheumatoid arthritis for
maintenance therapy. While reviewing the patient's records, the therapist comes across
his radiographs. Which of the following will MOST LIKELY NOT be found on the
radiographs of this patient with rheumatoid arthritis? - Correct Answers Tenosynovitis
Inflammatory changes in the tendon sheaths are a common finding with rheumatoid
arthritis; however, they cannot be differentiated on an X-ray. Radiographic hallmarks of
rheumatoid arthritis include: Subchondral radiolucent defects, periarticular swelling, loss
of joint space, periarticular osteoporosis, synovial pseudocyst, telescoping of digits,
erosion of articular cartilage, and periarticular fusiform swelling.
You are a physical therapist working in an acute care facility. A patient with acute heart
failure is referred for a physical therapy consultation for muscle wasting and weakness.
Before evaluating the patient, the therapist checks the lab reports. Which of the following
findings in the patient's lab reports will NOT indicate kidney failure? - Correct Answers
Decrease in creatinine levels
Heart failure is associated with low blood volume being pumped out of the heart. Thus,
less blood is available to perfuse the kidney and is likely to put the kidney in failure. An
increase in urea production, elevated BUN and creatinine levels, and decreased urine
output indicate renal dysfunction.
Documentation of a burn assessment is as follows: The burn is present on the left dorsal
forearm. The skin appears red in color with no evidence of conspicuous blanching. There
is an absence of hair on the skin, in addition to the absence of sensation to light touch and
pin-prick. Which of the following BEST describes the depth of this burn injury? - Correct
Answers Full-thickness
Full thickness burns are red in appearance with absence of blanching due to poor distal
circulation. The skin is anesthetic and hairs pull out easily.
A Superficial partial thickness burn would be very sensitive to light touch and temperature
changes. Subdermal thickness would be associated with muscle damage and
neurological involvement with a charred appearance. Deep partial thickness burns are
mixed red in color and blanch with a slow capillary refill. It is sensitive to pressure and
insensitive to light touch or pin-prick.
A physician is examining a patient with a gradual onset of difficulty raising the right
eyebrow and holding air in the right side of the mouth, along with loss of hearing in the
right ear. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY location of this lesion? - Correct
Answers Right pontomedullary region
The patient presents with deficits of facial nerve (CN 7) and vestibulocochlear nerve (CN
8) on the right side. Thus, the lesion is at the pontomedullary region. The lesion is less
likely to be in the cortex since the entire right half of the face is affected instead of just the
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