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FNP Exam # 1 Review questions and Answers
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FNP Exam # 1 Review questions and Answers
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FNP Exam # 1 Review questions and Answersa 70 year-old African American male complains of pain in his back and trunk. Cardiovascular
disease is rule out. He has a normocytic normochromic anemia with hypercalcemia. A likely
diagnosis is: CORRECT ANS-Multiple myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation in the bone marrow which results in sketetal
destruction. it is more common in older adult (avg. 66yo)
common clinical findings of Multiple myeloma are CORRECT ANS-pain in the long bones,
especially those of the trunk and back.
accompanying findings are anemia usually normocytic/normochromic, hypercalcemia, and
renal insufficiency.
A patient with testicular torsion will have CORRECT ANS-a negative cremasteric reflex on
the affected site.
testicular swelling and pain.
Contraindication on giving MMR is CORRECT ANS-Encephalopathy within 7 days after
immunization
An elderly adult with an appendicitis is unlikely to exhibit CORRECT ANS-initial WBC
elevation
Very young children and elderly are not likely to have initial WBC elevation.
Consequenlty appendicitis can be easily missed in these populations.
, FNP Exam # 1 Review questions and Answers
which medication listed below could potentially exacerbate CHF in a susceptible individual?
Naproxen
HCTZ
Lovastatin
Loratadine CORRECT ANS-Naproxen
Naproxen is an NSAIDs. NSAIDs cause sodium retention and thus, water retention.
The pneumococcal immunization in infants has CORRECT ANS-shifted the pathogenesis to
fewer cases of S. Pneumoniae
The heptavalent pneumococcal conjugatee vaccine (PCV7), prevnar, potects children from the
seven most common strains of Sreptococcus pneumoniae (S.pneumo) CORRECT ANS-it has
reduce the incidence of ear infections caused by S.pneumo and has reduce the incidence of
ear infection and tube placement by 10-20%.
Hepatitis A: ( -) IgM ( -) IgG what does this mean CORRECT ANS-He has no immunity to
hepatitis A. as evidence by the negative IgG. It is not currently infected as evidence by the
negative IgM.
A male patient has epididymitis. his most likely compalint will be CORRECT ANS-Scrotal
pain
It develops acutely and will be accompaied by fever, chills and very ill appearing patient.
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