Comprehensive WHNP Board Exam Preparation:
Women's Health Nurse Practitioner Certification
Guide Exam New Version Updated 2025
1. Counseling about reducing risk for sexually transmitted infection is what type of
prevention?
o A. Primary Prevention
o B. Secondary Prevention
o C. Tertiary Prevention
Answer: A. Primary Prevention
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs. In this case, counseling
to reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections is an example of primary prevention.
2. Skin survey for precancerous lesions is what type of prevention?
o A. Primary Prevention
o B. Secondary Prevention
o C. Tertiary Prevention
Answer: B. Secondary Prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention involves early detection of disease or risk factors. Skin surveys
aim to detect precancerous lesions early, allowing for treatment to prevent the progression of the
disease.
3. Administering a vaccine is what type of prevention?
o A. Primary Prevention
o B. Secondary Prevention
o C. Tertiary Prevention
Answer: A. Primary Prevention
Rationale: Vaccination is a form of primary prevention, which works by preventing the onset of
disease.
4. Adjusting therapy to enhance glycemic control is what type of prevention?
o A. Primary Prevention
o B. Secondary Prevention
o C. Tertiary Prevention
Answer: C. Tertiary Prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention aims to reduce the impact of an ongoing illness. Adjusting
therapy to improve glycemic control in a patient with diabetes is a way to prevent further
complications, thus falling under tertiary prevention.
5. T or F: Immune globulin is a concentrated solution of antibodies derived from
pooled donated blood.
Answer: True
Rationale: Immune globulins are antibody products derived from human blood plasma to
provide passive immunity to individuals exposed to infectious diseases.
, 6. T or F: A woman with a history of genital warts, abnormal Papanicolaou test, or
positive HPV DNA test should not receive HPV vaccine, such as Gardasil®9.
Answer: False
Rationale: The HPV vaccine is still recommended for individuals with a history of HPV
infection, as it provides protection against other HPV strains.
7. T or F: A 20-year-old woman who has received a three-dose series of HPV-4 vaccine
should receive a booster dose of HPV-9 vaccine.
Answer: False
Rationale: There is no recommendation for a booster dose of HPV-9 vaccine after completing
the HPV-4 series, as both vaccines provide long-lasting protection.
8. T or F: A 50-year-old woman should receive a two-dose adjuvant zoster vaccine
(Shingrix®) series.
Answer: True
Rationale: Shingrix® is recommended for individuals aged 50 and older to prevent shingles,
even if they had a previous shingles infection or received the Zostavax® vaccine.
9. Positive response to two items on the CAGE questionnaire means:
o A. Normal drinking behavior
o B. Suspected alcohol abuse
o C. Social drinking
o D. Alcohol dependence
Answer: B. Suspected alcohol abuse
Rationale: A positive response to two or more items on the CAGE questionnaire suggests the
likelihood of alcohol abuse and warrants further investigation or intervention.
10. T or F: Males represent nearly 80% of all completed suicides.
Answer: True
Rationale: Males are statistically more likely to die by suicide than females, with approximately
80% of completed suicides occurring in men.
11. A 55-year-old woman with COPD and a 60 pack-year history who is currently
smoking reads a pamphlet about smoking cessation and states, "I don't plan to quit
smoking. My health is pretty good." According to Change Theory, she is most likely
in which stage?
• A. Precontemplation
• B. Contemplation
• C. Preparation
• D. Action
Answer: A. Precontemplation
Rationale: In the precontemplation stage, the individual is not yet considering making changes
to their behavior or lifestyle, which aligns with the patient's response.
12. Annual clinical breast exams start when?
, • A. Age 21
• B. Age 25
• C. Age 30
• D. Age 35
Answer: B. Age 25
Rationale: According to guidelines, annual clinical breast exams typically start at age 25 to help
with early detection of breast abnormalities.
13. Is a pelvic ultrasound with endometrial biopsy in a 52-year-old woman who is two
years post-LMP and who denies vaginal bleeding needed?
• A. Yes
• B. No
Answer: B. No
Rationale: In the absence of symptoms such as vaginal bleeding, a pelvic ultrasound with
endometrial biopsy is not typically indicated for a postmenopausal woman.
14. Colonoscopy should start at what age?
• A. Age 40
• B. Age 45
• C. Age 50
• D. Age 55
Answer: B. Age 45
Rationale: As of 2021, the USPSTF recommends starting colonoscopy screening at age 45 for
average-risk individuals to detect colorectal cancer early.
15. A 30-year-old woman of Asian ancestry presents for a routine health visit. She is in
good health and reports she is concerned about her personal breast and ovarian
cancer risk and asks about BRCA gene mutation testing. What do you advise?
• A. No further action is needed.
• B. A standardized screening questionnaire for BRCA gene mutation, such as FHS-7,
should be administered today to determine if BRCA gene mutation testing is warranted.
• C. Immediate referral to a genetic counselor.
• D. Routine mammography is sufficient.
Answer: B. A standardized screening questionnaire for BRCA gene mutation, such as FHS-7,
should be administered today to determine if BRCA gene mutation testing is warranted.
Rationale: BRCA gene mutation testing should be considered for individuals with certain risk
factors, and a standardized questionnaire helps assess the need for further genetic testing.
16. If MCV low, MCHC low, RDW high, what should you check next?
• A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
• B. Ferritin
• C. Vitamin B12
• D. Reticulocyte count
Answer: B. Ferritin
Rationale: This pattern suggests iron deficiency anemia, and ferritin levels should be checked to
confirm the diagnosis.
, 17. If MCV low, MCHC low, and RDW normal, what should you check next?
• A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
• B. Ferritin
• C. Vitamin B12
• D. Reticulocyte count
Answer: A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Rationale: A low MCV, low MCHC, and normal RDW may suggest thalassemia, so
hemoglobin electrophoresis is the next step in diagnosis.
18. If MCV high, MCHC normal, and RDW high, what should you check next?
• A. Ferritin
• B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
• C. Vitamin B12 & folate
• D. Reticulocyte count
Answer: C. Vitamin B12 & folate
Rationale: These findings suggest a possible macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin
B12 or folate deficiency.
19. What is the most important source of the body's iron supply?
• A. Iron supplements
• B. Iron-rich food
• C. Recycled iron content from aged red blood cells
• D. Iron stored in the liver
Answer: C. Recycled iron content from aged red blood cells
Rationale: The body recycles iron from aged red blood cells, making this the most important
source of iron supply.
20. A 58-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of increasingly severe
peripheral numbness and oral irritation. Hemogram results are as follows: Hb=6.2
g/dL, Hct=20%, RBC=2.1 million/mm3, MCV=132 fL, MCHC=32.4 g/dL,
RDW=19%, WBC morphology=Hypersegmented neutrophils. Physical exam
reveals pale conjunctiva, a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur over the precordium
without radiation, and a smooth, red tongue. The most likely cause of this anemia is:
• A. Iron deficiency anemia
• B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
• C. Folic acid deficiency
• D. Anemia of chronic disease
Answer: B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
Rationale: The macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and neurologic symptoms
points to vitamin B12 deficiency as the most likely cause.
21. **A 45-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who is on appropriate therapy and
continues to have significant symptoms presents with the following hemogram: Hb=10.1 g/dL,
Hct=32%, RBC=3.2 million/mm3, MCV=82 fL, RDW=12.8%, Reticulocytes=0.7%. These
