100% satisfaction guarantee Immediately available after payment Both online and in PDF No strings attached
Previously searched by you
NR602 Final Exam Latest Update Actual Exam from Credible Sources with 400+ Questions and Verified Correct Answers Golden Ticket to Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor$20.49
Add to cart
NR602 Final Exam Latest Update Actual Exam from Credible Sources with 400+ Questions and Verified Correct Answers Golden Ticket to Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor
7 views 0 purchase
Course
NR602
Institution
NR602
NR602 Final Exam Latest Update Actual Exam from Credible Sources with 400+ Questions and Verified Correct Answers Golden Ticket to Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor
NR602 Final Exam Latest Update 2024-2025
Actual Exam from Credible Sources with 400+
Questions and Verified Correct Answers Golden
Ticket to Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor
16yo female has h/o secondary amenorrhea. Menarche at 10yo, regular cycles x2yrs,
has not menstruated x4yrs. What is most frequent etiology of this problem?
a. Eating disorder
b. Pregnancy
c. Anovulatory cycles
d. Stress - CORRECT ANSWER: a
18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal secondary sex
characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would necessitate
further eval?
a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels
b. Androgen deficiency
c. Galactorrhea
d. Hirsutism - CORRECT ANSWER: c
22yo female c/o pelvic pain. Exam reveals cervical motion and uterine tenderness.
Which supports PID dx?
a. Temp <100F
b. Absence of WBCs in vag fluid
c. Mucopurulent vag discharge
d. Lab documentation of cervical infection w/E. coli - CORRECT ANSWER: c
,24yo female is dx'd w/primary dysmenorrhea. Which med would be used as first-line to
help control symptoms?
a. Antianxiety meds
b. Progesterone-only contraception
c. Oral steroids
d. NSAIDs - CORRECT ANSWER: d
25yo female c/o tender area near her introitus and to the L of her perineum. Very painful
sex was first sign. Initially bump was very small, but now is ping-pong ball size. On
exam, abscess is present on L medial side of labia minora and there's edema extending
into perineum. What is dx?
a. Lipoma
b. Dermoid cyst
c. Bartholin's cyst
d. Skene's duct cyst - CORRECT ANSWER: c
25yo female c/o vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, cervix is easily friable and
erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals mobile protozoa on NS slide.
This most likely represents:
a. Trichomonas
b. Mucopurulent cervicitis
c. Bacterial vaginosis
d. Gonorrhea - CORRECT ANSWER: a
25yo postmenopausal female c/o pain in upper outer quadrant of L breast x1mo. Best
course of action would be:
,a. Reassure pt that pain is often not presenting symptom of breast cancer.
b. Teach pt breast self-exam.
c. Order labs as most likely this is secondary to hormonal fluctuation
d. Perform breast exam and order mammo - CORRECT ANSWER: d
28yo female c/o breast tenderness, fatigue, abd bloating, fluid retention, irritability 1wk
before her menses onset. What is most important info to obtain from this pt to determine
if the pt has PMS?
a. Severity of symptoms
b. Occurrence of symptoms in menstrual cycle
c. Frequency and number of symptoms over past 4mo - CORRECT ANSWER: b
32yo woman c/o postcoital bleeding. Which would not be included in the initial
assessment?
a. Pap smear
b. Uterine biopsy
c. Pelvic ultrasound
d. CBC w/diff - CORRECT ANSWER: b
35yo woman c/o 6mo h/o hypermenorrhea, backache, pelvic pressure. On exam, you
discover 12wk size uterus w/irregular contour. What does this represent?
a. Uterine cancer
b. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
c. Uterine fibroid
d. Fecal impaction - CORRECT ANSWER: c
, 39yo female has completed course of amox for strep throat. LMP was 2wks ago, says it
was normal. On exam, there's erythema of extern. genitalia w/small amount of white
discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few clue cells, but many budding hyphae. No WBCs.
Which one would be the most appropriate treatment?
a. Metronidazole 500mg BID x7 days
b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
c. Fluconazole tabs 150mg x1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500mg TID x10 days - CORRECT ANSWER: c
4 phenotypes of PCOD/S: - CORRECT ANSWER: -Hyperandrogenism/chronic
anovulation
-Hyperandrogenism/polycystic ovaries on US but w/ovulatory cycles
-Chronic anovulation/polycystic ovaries w/out hyperandrogenism
-Hyperandrogenism, chronic anovulation, polycystic ovaries
49yo female c/o dark, watery brown vaginal discharge. Which best describes what
might be seen on physical exam in pt's with cervical cancer?
a. Ulcerated firm cervix
b. Vague lower abd pain
c. Enlarged tender femoral lymph nodes
d. Soft, still shaped cervix - CORRECT ANSWER: a
Absolute contraind. for estrog. replacement therapy - CORRECT ANSWER: -h/o breast
ca
-Undx vag bleeding
-Carcinoma
-Active liver dz
The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:
Guaranteed quality through customer reviews
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
Quick and easy check-out
You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Focus on what matters
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
Frequently asked questions
What do I get when I buy this document?
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Who am I buying these notes from?
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller Tutordiligent. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
Will I be stuck with a subscription?
No, you only buy these notes for $20.49. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.