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EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120 approved and verified Answers.

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EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120 approved and verified Answers. EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120 approved and verified Answers. EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120 approved and verified Answers. EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120 approved and verified Answers.

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  • October 17, 2024
  • 33
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • EMT-Basic
  • EMT-Basic
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EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120
approved and verified Answers.
EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120
approved and verified Answers.
EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in
contact with contact with patients who have which of the following?
A. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) or AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency
Syndrome)
B. Tuberculosis (TB)
C. Open Wounds
D. Hepatitis B - ANSWER- B. Tuberculosis

HEPA respirators are worn when in contact with patients airborne infections such as TB.
HIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B are both blood-borne pathogens. Contaminants from open
wounds would also be blood-borne.

You are called to assist a 60-year-old female who complains of a severe headache.
Upon entering the home, you smell a strong odor of natural gas. What is your first
reaction?
A. Check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation.
B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess vital signs.
C. Remove the patient from the house to your ambulance.
D. Open all windows and determine the source of the gas leak. - ANSWER- C. Remove
the patient from the house to your ambulance.

Your first action should be to remove your crew and the patient from the possible
noxious gas and to notify the gas company of the leak. You may also be required to
alert hazardous material response team. Treatment for the patient will begin with an
ABC assessment and management of any problems you might encounter.

The most common electrical rhythm disturbance that results in sudden cardiac arrest.
A. Pulseless Electrical Activity
B. Ventricular Fibrillation
C. Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Asystole - ANSWER- B. Ventricular Fibrillation

Because ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest., it is
critical to apply an AED on an unconscious apneic and pulseless patient as quickly as
possible. The other rhythms can also cause a patient to be in cardiac arrest, but they do
not occur as frequently as "V-fib".

Which of the following is the highest priority patient?
A. 57-year-old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.

,EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120
approved and verified Answers.
B. 40-year-old female with moderate pain from a leg injury.
C. 75-year-old male who appears confused but responds to commands.
D. 25-year-old female in labor with contractions six minutes apart. - ANSWER- A. 57-
year-old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.

The patient with chest pain and systolic blood pressure less than 100 is the highest
priority patient of the four. A leg injury may be life-threatening if the femoral artery is
injured, but most often, a single extremity injury is not a threat to life. The elderly
gentleman may be exhibiting his normal mental status, or he may be having problems
due to an ongoing health problem. You need more information before you can make
that determination, but he is not in any imminent danger right now. Labor with
contractions 6 minutes apart is not considered imminent delivery. If you have any
questions, however, you should continue assessing this patient as well by asking
pertinent questions and checking for crowning.

Of the following, which body fluid has the most potential to transmit blood-borne
diseases?
A. Nasal Discharge
B. Vomitus
C. Amniotic Fluid
D. Feces - ANSWER- C. Amniotic Fluid

Fluids containing blood have the highest potential for disease transmission.

Your patient is an 11-month-old female. How can you determine if she has a decreased
mental status and is responsive to verbal stimuli?
A. She will be upset when you take her from her mother's arms.
B. She will be unable to tell you how old she is if you ask her.
C. She will attempt to locate her parents' voices when they speak.
D. She will try to pull away from a painful stimulus on her toe. - ANSWER- C. She will
attempt to locate her parents' voices when they speak.

An infant who is alert to verbal stimuli will still try to locate the parents' voices; choice A
describes an alert infant; choice D describes an infant who is responsive to painful
stimuli; choice B is incorrect because infants of this age are not developed enough to
tell you their age regardless of their mental status.

What is the best method to assess circulation in an infant?
A. Palpate the carotid pulse.
B. Palpate the brachial pulse.
C. Palpate the radial pulse.
D. Observe capillary refill time. - ANSWER- B. Palpate the brachial pulse.

,EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120
approved and verified Answers.
Assess circulation in an infant by palpating the brachial pulse in the upper arm. The
carotid and radial pulses are difficult to locate in infants. Capillary refill time shows that
the patient has impaired circulation, but it is not the first tool to use in assessing
circulation because it is affected by external factors (like the environment) as well as
internal factors like poor perfusion.

A 45-year-old male is experiencing chest discomfort. After placing him in his position of
comfort, your next action should be?
A. Ventilate the patient with a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min.
B. Ventilate the patient with the bag-valve mask at 15 L/min.
C. Administer oxygen by rebreather mask at 15 L/min.
D. Administer oxygen by the nasal cannula at 6 L/min. - ANSWER- C. Administer
oxygen by rebreather mask at 15 L/min.

There is no information to indicate that the patient requires ventilatory support. Any
patient experiencing chest discomfort should receive the highest possible concentration
of oxygen.

Which patient should receive a rapid trauma survey to determine hidden injuries?
A. Alert 2-year-old child in a car seat who was in a medium speed crash.
B.Alert 20-year-old male who fell 10 feet off of a ladder.
C. Alert 65-year-old female who fell in the bathtub and is complaining of wrist pain.
D. Alert 11-year-old female who tripped while roller skating and fell down three steps. -
ANSWER- A. Alert 2-year-old child in a car seat who was in a medium speed crash.

The rapid trauma survey is used when you are unsure of the presence of hidden injuries
or f the mechanism of injury (MOI) is unclear or severe enough to suggest the need for
a rapid assessment. A 2-year-old child could be severely injured by a medium speed
collision, even if he or she appears alert and was properly restrained. The other choices
do not represent MOIs considered to be high risk for hidden injury.

Which of the following is a sign of increased pressure in the circulatory system?
A. Flat neck veins
B. Palpable carotid pulse
C. Distended jugular veins
D. Decreased radial pulse - ANSWER- C. Distended jugular veins

A supine patient may or may not have jugular veins that are prominent enough to
palpate. However, even if the neck veins are normally present when an individual is
supine, they will not be engorged with blood and overly firm to the touch. This is what is
meant by the phrase distended neck veins. Distended neck veins (in any position) are a
sign of increased circulatory pressure. The carotid pulse should always be palpable. A
decreased radial pulse may indicate hypovolemic shock or an injured extremity.

, EMT Basic Practice Exam 1 all 120
approved and verified Answers.
An automated external defibrillator (AED) will shock which if the following rhythms?
A. Sinus Rhythm
B. Asystole
C. Ventricular Fibrillation
D. Pulseless Electrical Activity - ANSWER- C. Ventricular Fibrillation

The other rhythms do not benefit from an electrical shock. The purpose of early
defibrillation is to stop a highly chaotic, disorganized electrical rhythm such as
ventricular fibrillation, with the hope that an organized rhythm will begin and generate a
pulse.

To assess the motor function in the lower extremities of a responsive patient, you
would...
A. Ask the patient to bend his knee
B. Ask the patient to wiggle his toes
C. Carefully move the patient's leg
D. Touch the skin of the patient's foot - ANSWER- B. Ask the patient to wiggle his toes

Assess the motor function by asking the patient to wiggle his toes; moving the leg or
having the patient bend the knee can compromise spinal stability; option D describes
assessment of sensation, not motor function.

Which patient can safely receive only a focused physical examination rather than a
rapid trauma survey?
A. 10-year-old male with a deformed right lower leg who is responsive after falling off his
bicycle.
B. 20-year-old female who complains of severe pain in her ankle after stepping off a
curb.
C. 70-year-old male who complains of neck pain after a medium speed collision.
D. 30-year-old male who is unresponsive but has only minor cuts on the extremities. -
ANSWER- B. 20-year-old female who complains of severe pain in her ankle after
stepping off a curb.

Patient B is the only one both responsive and who has no significant MOI.

You are using the OPQRST acronym to assess a responsive medical patient. What
question would you ask to assess the P component?
A. What were you doing when the pain started?
B. Can you describe the character of the pain for me?
C. What makes the pain worse or better?
D. On a scale of 1-10, how would rank the pain? - ANSWER- C. What makes the pain
worse or better?

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