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ANCC exam 3 questions and answers 2024/2025
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ANCC exam 31.A nine-month-vintage girl toddler offers to the health center for a recurring properly-child visit.
Six months ago, she became prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) because of gastroesophageal
reflux and bad weight advantage. At the present go to, her parents report that she is consuming
approximately 24 oz of system daily and eating a few stable meals. They document no current
issues with reflux. While reviewing the affected person's boom chart, the nurse practitioner
notes steady and appropriate weight advantage over the past 6 months. Which of the following
is the next satisfactory step in control?
A.
Continue omeprazole (Prilosec) as prescribed
Incorrect
B.
Decrease the dose of omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 weeks
Correct
C.
Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and prescribe metoclopramide (Reglan)
Incorrect
D.
Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in three months - ANS-B-Decrease the dose
of omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 weeks
2.A 70-12 months-antique man presents to the sanatorium for a routine checkup. He has a
history of smoking one p.C. Of cigarettes in line with day for the beyond forty years. He reviews
no pain nowadays. Which of the subsequent is the maximum suitable advice regarding belly
aortic aneurysm screening for this patient?
A.
Advise him to cease smoking but defer screening due to the fact that he is asymptomatic
Incorrect
B.
No screening important, as he is past the recommended age
Incorrect
C.
Order an stomach U/S for screening today
Correct
D.
Perform a physical examination of the stomach to evaluate for a pulsatile mass - ANS-C-Order
an abdominal U/S for screening today
3.Which of the subsequent is the most critical first step when evaluating a 15-12 months-vintage
girl with a four-month records of secondary amenorrhea?
A.
,Checking weight
Incorrect
B.
Measuring FSH
Incorrect
C.
Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin degrees
Correct
D.
Measuring TSH - ANS-C-Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin stages
4.While studying a journal article, a nurse practitioner comes throughout a segment discussing
the efficacy of a new drug. The article mentions a P fee of .03 in terms of the drug's effect.
Which of
the subsequent first-rate defines what a P fee is?
A.
A degree of the connection among two variables
Incorrect
B.
The odds of an occasion in one group as opposed to any other
Incorrect
C.
The percent of sufferers who replied to the drug
Incorrect
D.
The probability that observed results passed off by using chance - ANSThe opportunity that
located outcomes took place through chance
A 47-yr-vintage female presents with four days of high fever, headache, and myalgias. She
evolved a blanching erythematous rash with macules on her wrists and ankles that spread to
her trunk 2 days in the past. She reports no history of distant places journey but changed into
tenting in Arkansas ultimate weekend. Which of the subsequent is the most appropriate remedy
for the suspected prognosis?
A.
Ceftriaxone
Incorrect
B.
Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
Correct
C.
Erythromycin (Erythrocin)
Incorrect
D.
Vancomycin (Vancocin) - ANSDoxycycline (Vibramycin)
,A 36-yr-old G4P3 woman provides for a recurring prenatal go to at 30 weeks gestation. She
became recognized with gestational diabetes mellitus at 26 weeks gestation. The nurse
practitioner evaluations the affected person's critical signs and symptoms and blood glucose log
and orders lab work. Which of the subsequent findings suggests powerful management of this
situation?
A.
1-hour postprandial blood glucose ranges < two hundred mg/dL
Incorrect
B.
2-hour postprandial glucose levels < 100 mg/dL
Incorrect
C.
Daily fasting glucose ranges of < ninety five mg/dL
Correct
D.
Weight loss of 2 pounds since the final visit - ANSDaily fasting glucose tiers of < 95 mg/dL
A sixty two-year-old female affords to the clinic with recognizing for two weeks. Her ultimate
menstrual cycle became eight years in the past. She reviews that she is sexually active with one
associate. A pelvic examination famous atrophic vaginal mucosa without proof of bleeding, and
adnexal masses aren't palpable. The vulvar and urethral examination is unremarkable. Stool
guaiac trying out is terrible. Which of the following is the most possibly analysis?
A.
Bladder most cancers
Incorrect
B.
Endometrial carcinoma
Correct
C.
Ovarian fibroma
Incorrect
D.
Rectal adenocarcinoma - ANSEndometrial carcinoma
A 40-year-old man become diagnosed with depression and prescribed a selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitor for the first time. Which of the following aspect effects ought to the nurse
practitioner discuss with the affected person?
A.
Insomnia can be progressed with the aid of taking the medication at bedtime
Incorrect
B.
Nausea generally resolves in 1-3 weeks
Correct
C.
, Sexual disorder is commonly irreversible
Incorrect
D.
Weight loss must be anticipated - ANSNausea commonly resolves in 1-three weeks
A nurse practitioner partners with a local university to look at the effects of a unique dietary
complement on blood pressure regulation in teenagers. Eager to start, the nurse practitioner
has already drafted the studies protocol, diagnosed capability individuals, and secured the
important supplements for the have a look at. However, the college's research coordinator
advises the nurse practitioner to first address a vital step before proceeding. Which of the
subsequent is essential earlier than beginning the observe?
A.
Design a advertising and marketing method for the nutritional complement
Incorrect
B.
Ensure the take a look at consequences will be posted in a top-tier magazine
Incorrect
C.
Obtain approval from the institutional overview board
Correct
D.
Secure extra funding from pharmaceutical businesses - ANSObtain approval from the
institutional evaluate board
A fifty eight-yr-vintage guy offers to the clinic for a comply with-up on his high blood pressure
and reports no problems. His extra medical records consists of continual kidney sickness
degree IV, gout, and diabetes mellitus. His laboratory studies monitor hemoglobin of 10 g/dL,
hematocrit of 36%, general iron of fifty mcg/dL, and ferritin of 200 ng/mL. Which of the
subsequent should be blanketed in the plan of care at this time?
A.
Blood transfusion
Incorrect
B.
Iron chelation therapy
Incorrect
C.
Referral to a hematologist
Incorrect
D.
Routine iron studies and CBC - ANSRoutine iron studies and CBC
A 2-month-vintage Black little one gives to the clinic for a ordinary visit. On the physical
examination, the nurse practitioner notes 2 light-brown macules with uniform borders at the
toddler's torso. Which of the subsequent is the maximum probable diagnosis?
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