AH3 Pearson NCLEX Cancer (Exam #1)
Questions and Answers Latest Update
A 33-year-old woman has just given birth to identical twin girls. Both newborns had
Apgar scores of 8. Twin A weighed 8 lbs 3 oz, and twin B weighted 7 lbs 8 oz. During
postdelivery assessment, the client asks the nurse about a term she heard on TV, "the
human genome." What can the nurse tell her about her newborns' genomes?
A. The newborns have identical genomes.
B. A high Apgar score means high genome scores.
C. Testing is needed to assess their genomes.
D. The larger newborn has a larger genome. - Answer-A. The newborns have identical
genomes
Rationale:
The newborns have identical genomes due to having the same exact DNA. This fact is
not altered by weight, testing, or an Apgar score.
Which statement by the nurse demonstrates understanding of older adult clients with
cancer?
A."Older adult clients have a greater tolerance for cancer treatement."
B. "Older adult clients have better outcomes for cancer treatement."
C. "Older adult clients usually have a comorbid condition."
D. "There is no correlation between the functional ability of an older adult and
predisposition to poorer outcomes." - Answer-C. Older adult clients usually have a
comorbid condition
Rationale:
Older adults experiencing cellular regulation disorders are more likely to have
comorbidities such as lung, kidney, or heart disease, which can increase their risk of
treatment complications. These individuals are also less likely to tolerate the necessary
treatment or its adverse reactions. Older adults with cellular regulation disorders who
have a lower functional status are generally predisposed to poorer outcomes.
Which statement by the nurse shows a need for further education about the essentials
of genetics?
A. "Two copies of a Y chromosome result in a female."
B. "People have 46 chromosomes."
C. "DNA molecules are made up of long sequences."
D. "Identical twins have the same DNA." - Answer-A. Two copies of a Y chromosome
result in a female
,Rationale:
Two copies of an X chromosome, not a Y chromosome, result in a female child.
Identical twins have the same DNA. People have 46 chromosomes. DNA molecules are
made up of long sequences.
Other than cancer, which disease is caused by problems in cellular regulation? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Polio
B. Anemia
C. Pneumonia
D. Polycythemia
E. Sickle cell disease - Answer-B. Anemia
D. Polycythemia
E. Sickle cell disease
Rationale:
Anemia, sickle cell disease, and polycythemia are caused by problems in cellular
regulation. Polio is caused by a virus. Pneumonia can be caused by a virus or by
bacteria.
A client's biopsy revealed dysplasia of cells. The client asks the nurse, "What does this
mean?" Which response by the nurse is correct?
A. "Dysplasia refers to cells that have irreversible damage and will become cancerous."
B. "Dysplasia consists of abnormal cells for which the damage is irreversible."
C. "Dysplasia refers to abnormal variations in cell size, shape, appearance, and
arrangement that are often caused by irritation."
D. "Dysplasia means that the number of cells has increased and they have become
denser." - Answer-C. Dysplasia refers to abnormal variations in cell size, shape,
appearance, and arrangement that are often caused by irritation
Rationale:
Dysplastic cells show abnormal variations in size, shape, and appearance and a
disturbance in their usual arrangement. Although under certain circumstances they can
become malignant, the dysplasia is usually reversed once the source of irritation is
eliminated. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number or density of normal cells.
Anaplasia is the regression of a cell to an immature or undifferentiated cell type and is
often associated with malignancies. It is one of the criteria used to grade the
aggressiveness of cancer cells.
Which should the nurse include in the nutritional assessment of a client receiving cancer
treatment? (Select all that apply.)
A. Any changes in weight
B. Location and intensity of pain
,C. Pain or difficulty with defecation
D. Presence of nausea and vomiting
E. Total protein and serum albumin levels - Answer-A. Any changes in weight
D. Presence of nausea and vomiting
E. Total protein and serum albumin levels
Rationale:
A nutritional assessment would include looking at the client's overall weight for weight
loss due to inadequate oral intake. The nurse should also determine if the client has
experienced any nausea or vomiting. This could interfere with taking in food. Laboratory
tests such as the total protein and albumin levels will indicate the presence of good or
poor nutrition.
Which assessment finding in a client receiving chemotherapy for cancer warrants
immediate healthcare provider notification?
A. Skin dryness
B. Hair loss
C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 1 month
D. Temperature of 101.6degreesF - Answer-D. Temperature of 101.6 degrees F
Rationale:
Clients receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer are at high risk for infection
due to a suppressed immune system. Therefore, the nurse would notify the healthcare
provider of a body temperature greater than 101.5degreesF, because this signifies
infection. Hair loss and skin dryness is normal and does not warrant immediate
healthcare provider notification. A weight gain of 2 pounds in 1 month indicates true
body weight and not fluid retention. This finding does not require the nurse to
immediately notify the healthcare provider.
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find in a client with a new
diagnosis of pernicious anemia? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pallor
B. Weakness
C. Constipation
D. Sore, red tongue
E. Spoon-shaped nails - Answer-A. Pallor
B. Weakness
D. Sore, red tongue
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is a vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor.
This causes pallor, weakness, and a sore, red, beefy tongue. B12 deficiency causes
diarrhea, not constipation. Spoon-shaped nails are a sign of iron-deficiency anemia.
, The nurse is caring for a client with severe anemia. Which clinical manifestation of
anemia would indicate the client has cardiovascular compromise? (Select all that apply.)
A. Urticaria
B. Cyanosis
C. Chest pain
D. Tachycardia
E. Nausea and vomiting - Answer-B. Cyanosis
C. Chest pain
D. Tachycardia
Rationale:
Cardiovascular signs of anemia occur due to lack of oxygenation. This includes
cyanosis, chest pain, and tachycardia. Urticaria, nausea, and vomiting are clinical
manifestations of anaphylaxis.
Which modifiable risk factor should the nurse assess to determine the risk of cancer
development in a client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Age
B. Diet
C. Tobacco use
D. Sun exposure
E. Family history - Answer-B. Diet
C. Tobacco use
D. Sun exposure
Rationale: Modifiable risk factors are those that can be changed by the client. These
include diet, tobacco use, and sun exposure. Nonmodifiable risk factors, such as age
and family history, cannot be changed.
Which of the following is a way that the nurse can help a client with breast cancer who
is experiencing anticipatory grieving before her double mastectomy? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Denial
B. Silence
C. Venting
D. Active listening
E. Nonverbal support gestures - Answer-B. Silence
D. Active listening
E. Nonverbal support gestures
Rationale:
The nurse can use active listening, silence, and nonverbal support gestures to help the
client. Neither denial nor venting is helpful.
