AANP AGNP LATEST EXAM 2025
COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) | A+ GRADE
A 57-year-old patient presents for a physical examination.
The patient has been in good health, takes no
medications, has a family history of hypertension and
heart disease, denies alcohol use, and has never smoked.
The patient's last tetanus booster was 9 years ago. Which
of the following vaccines is indicated at this time?
1) TD
2) Influenza
3) PNA
4) Hep B Correct Answer 2) Influenza
A patient with a diagnosis of diverticulosis presents with
localized left lower quadrant discomfort, a palpable mass,
mild leukocytosis, and T = 100° (37.8°C). The patient does
not appear toxic and can tolerate fluids. An appropriate
plan should include:
1) NPO, BARIUM enema
2) low fiber diet and referral to GI
3) clear liquids and oral antibiotics.
4) admit to hospital Correct Answer 3) clear liquids and
oral antibiotics.
,A frail elder who is on total bed rest suddenly develops
urinary and fecal incontinence. This condition is frequently
an indication of:
A 65-year-old female with diabetes mellitus presents for a
routine follow up. BP is 142/88, Hgb A1c is 8.4%, fasting
blood glucose is 160 mg/dL, and microalbumin is 60 mg/L
(normal < 30 mg/L). In addition to changing the diabetes
medications, the nurse practitioner would also ensure that
the patient is taking:
A 67-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus,
congestive heart failure (CHF), and mild coronary artery
disease is currently taking digoxin, 0.25 mg daily;
hydrochlorothiazide, 25 mg daily; glipizide, 10 mg daily;
and atorvastatin (Lipitor), 20 mg h.s. Which of the
following is an accurate statement regarding this regimen?
,1) Glipizide will deplete potassium stores
2) The hydrochlorothiazide will predispose the patient to
digoxin toxicity.
3) atorvastatin will worsen the diabetes Correct Answer 2)
The hydrochlorothiazide will predispose the patient to
digoxin toxicity.
An 18-year-old patient presents with complaints of
maxillary facial pain and yellow nasal discharge for 14
days. What is the appropriate initial pharmacologic
intervention?
1) Tylenol with codiene
2) ibuprofen 800mg TID
3) prednisone, 60 mg daily PO and re-evaluate in 1 month.
Correct Answer 3) prednisone, 60 mg daily PO and re-
evaluate in 1 month.
In addressing suspected domestic violence in an adult
relationship, it is appropriate to:
1) just do a physical assessment, not social
2) make an assessment of battering.
, 3) avoid making a battering assessment, it is legal Correct
Answer 2) make an assessment of battering.
Over the past 6 months, a nurse practitioner has been
treating a 62-year-old construction worker for
chronic/recurrent right biceps tendonitis. He has had good
and bad days, but seems to respond well to NSAIDs and
muscle relaxants. Today he returns to the clinic after
feeling a "snapping" sensation in his right upper arm while
lifting a cinder block. To aid in diagnosis, the nurse
practitioner would evaluate:
1) Right shoulder ROM, and strength
2) for the presence of right upper arm bulge ("Popeye
muscle") and biceps strength.
3) radial pulses and right biceps tendon
4) right supination/pronation Correct Answer 2) for the
presence of right upper arm bulge ("Popeye muscle") and
biceps strength.
Which of the following accurately describes the
phenomenon of isolated systolic hypertension, as opposed
to isolated diastolic or combined systolic/diastolic
hypertension, in the elderly?
1) Considered a significant risk factor for MI or stroke
2) demonstrated to be related to smoking
3) Occurs primarily in men
4) Not considered to be a major risk Correct Answer 1)
Considered a significant risk factor for MI or stroke
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