HESI PN MATERNITY EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERSWITH RATIONALES | (2024/
2025 UPDATE) A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
A. January 2
B. March 28
C. April 12
D. October 12
~ Answer: C
Rationale: To determine the EDD when the date of the client's LMP is...
A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
A. January 2
B. March 28
C. April 12
D. October 12
~ Answer: C
Rationale: To determine the EDD when the date of the client's LMP is known use
Nagele rule. To the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months, and add 1
year (if applicable) to arrive at the EDD as follows: 5 + 7 = 12 (July) minus 3 = 4
(April).
Therefore, the client's EDD is April 12.
A client is pregnant with her third child. Medical history of the client indicates a
previous precipitate labor and birth. Which of the following interventions would NOT
be expected during labor of the present pregnancy?
A. Use of magnesium sulfate
B. Close monitoring of the fetus for hypoxia
C. The nurse stays at the bedside constantly or as much as possible
D. amnioinfusion will be performed
~ Answer: D
Rationale: Amnioinfusion is instillation of fluid into the amniotic sac within the uterus
to treat oligohydraminios. This is not done to prevent precipitate labor and birth.
Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as
significant?
A. Hematocrit 33.5%
B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
,C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3
D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
~ Answer: B
Rationale: A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thurs, a finding of a titer less than
1:8 is significant, indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella. A
hematocrit of 33.5% a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm3, and a 1 hour glucose
challenge test of 110 g/dl are with normal parameters.
During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation
of a fertilized egg to occur?
A. ischemic phase
B. mentrual phase
C. proliferative phase
D. secretory phase
~ Answer: D
The LPN is preparing to administer Solu-medrol 40 mg mixed in 150 mL of sodium
chloride via intravenous piggyback. The medication is to be administered over 30
minutes. Using the tubing with a drop factor of 15 ggts/mL, what would the LPN
calculate the rate to be in drops per minute?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 75
D. 150
~ Answer: C
The nurse knows that there are psychological maternal changes that occurs during
pregnancy in a primigravida patient. Select all the normal psychological maternal
changes that happens throughout pregnancy.
A. Ambivalence
B. Breast tenderness
C. Emotional lability
D. Body image changes
E. Bonding or relationship with the fetus
,F. Nausea and vomiting
G. Syncope
H. Urinary frequency
~ Answer: A, C, D, E
Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during
pregnancy?
A. 12 to 2 lbs
B. 15 to 25 lbs
C. 25 to 35 lbs
D. 25 to 40 lbs
~ Answer: C
Rationale: The average amount of weight gained during pregnancy is 25 to 35 lb.
This weight gain consists of the following: fetus - 7.5 lb; placenta and membrane -
1.5 lb; amniotic fluid - 2 lb; uterus - 2.5 lb; breasts - 3 lb; and increased blood volume
- 2 to 4 lb; extravascular fluid and fat - 4 to 9 lb. A gain of 12 to 22 lb is insufficient,
whereas a weight gain of 15 to 25 lb is marginal. A weight gain of 25 to 40 lb is
considered excessive.
A 36 weeks gestation pregnant woman is complaining of urinary urgency and
frequency. The nurse explained that the enlarging fetus is pressing the bladder which
causes frequent urination. This is normally occuring during the first and third
trimesters of pregnancy. The nurse advices the patient to do the following measures
to prevent urinary frequency. Select all the necessary measures that the nurse can
provide to the patient.
A. Drink 2 quarts of fluid during the day
B. Engaging in a regular exercise
C. Performing Kegel exercises
D. Soaking in a warm sitz bath
E. Limiting fluid intake during the evening
~ Answer: A, C, E
The LPN has initiated the administration of vancomycin via IV piggyback . In which of
the following situations should the nurse recognize that the client may be
experiencing a fatal reaction to this medication?
, A. The client start coughing
B. The client complains of pain at the intravenous catheter insertion site
C. The nurse hears the client snoring from the hall
D. The nurse notices the client's neck and chest is bright red
~ Answer: D
Rationale: While administering vancomycin the LPN should know to monitor the
client carefully for the development of Red Man Syndrome or anaphylactic shock.
The common side effects of this medicine are pruritus, flushing and erythema to the
head, neck, and upper body.
Ativan 0.5 mg IM every 1 hour as needed is prescribed for a client experiencing
delirium tremens. The medication vial reads 2mg/mL of solution. How many mL
should the LPN draw into the syringe for single dose administration?
~ Answer: 0.25ml Rationale: 2mg/mL= 0.5mg/xmL 2x=0.5
x=0.5/2 x=0.25 mL
Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result
of which of the following?
A. increased plasma HCG levels
B. decreased intestinal motility
C. decrease gastric acidity
D. elevated estrogen levels
~ Answer: C
Rationale: During the second trimester, the reduction in gastric acidity in conjunction
with pressure from the growing uterus and smooth muscle relaxation, can cause
heartburn and flatulence. HCG levels increase in the first, not the second, trimester.
Decrease intestinal motility would most likely be the cause of constipation and
bloating. Estrogen levels decrease in the second trimester.
According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using the Naegle's rule what is
her EDC?
A. August 23, 2003
B. August 18, 2003
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