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Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition Test Bank
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Cytoplasm
D. Plasma membrane
____ 2. Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics?
A. The gene for insulin is located on chromosome 11 in all people.
B. Expression of any single gene is dependent on inheriting two alleles.
C. Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more often than females.
D. One allele for each gene is inherited from the mother, and one is inherited from the
father.
____ 3. What is the purpose of phosphorous in a DNA strand?
A. Linking the nucleotides into a strand
B. Holding complementary strands together
C. Ensuring that a purine is always paired with a pyrimidine
D. Preventing the separation of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA
____ 4. What is the term used to define alternative forms of a gene that may result in different
expression of the trait coded for by that gene?
A. Alleles
B. Bases
C. Centromeres
D. Diploids
____ 5. What percentage of bases in a stretch of double-stranded DNA that contains 30% guanine (G)
bases would be adenine (A)?
A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 30%
D. 20%
____ 6. What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a
cell used to determine whether chromosome numbers, structures, and banding patterns are
normal?
, Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition Test Bank
A. Pedigree
B. Phenotype
C. Karyotype
D. Autotype
____ 7. What would be the sequence of DNA that is complementary to a DNA section with the base
sequence of GGTCAATCCTTAG?
A. GATTCCTAACTGG
B. TTGACCGAAGGCT
C. AACTGGCTTCCGA
D. CCAGTTAGGAATC
____ 8. Which of these complementary base pairs form the strongest or “tightest” association?
A. Adenine and thymine
B. Cytosine and guanine
C. Guanine and thymine
D. Cytosine and adenine
____ 9. What activity occurs during M phase of the cell cycle?
A. The cell undergoes cytokinesis.
B. Activity stops, and the cell “sleeps.”
C. All DNA is completely replicated.
D. The cell greatly increases protein synthesis.
____ 10. Which chromosome number represents the euploid state for normal human somatic cells?
A. 44
B. 46
C. 47
D. 48
____ 11. How does the proteome differ from the genome?
A. The proteome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
B. The genome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
C. The proteome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the
genome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
D. The genome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the
proteome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
____ 12. What is the most outstanding feature of a mature haploid cell?
A. It is usually homozygous.
B. The sex chromosomes are missing.
C. Only one chromosome of each pair is present.
D. DNA synthesis occurs after mitosis instead of before.
____ 13. At what phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes visible as separate structures?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
____ 14. Which statement about the cell cycle phase of G0 is true?
A. Hyperplastic growth in place of hypertrophic growth
, Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition Test Bank
B. Performance of specific differentiated functions
C. Initiation and completion of nucleokinesis
D. Replication of DNA
____ 15. What is the result of normal DNA replication?
A. Formation of two new daughter cells
B. Formation of two identical sets of DNA
C. Disappearance of the original parent cell
D. Activation and attachment of spindle fibers
____ 16. Which statement regarding chromosome structure or function is true?
A. The chromatids of any single chromosome are known as “sister chromatids.”
B. The genes located on the telomeres of chromosomes are identical to the genes in
the centromeres.
C. Immediately before the mitosis phase of cell division, the chromosomes of all
somatic cells are haploid.
D. A specific gene allele on one chromosome has a complementary allele on the other
chromosome of a pair.
____ 17. Why does a person with normal chromosomes only have two alleles for any single gene trait?
A. A minimum of two alleles is required for the expression of monogenic traits.
B. When a dominant allele is paired with a recessive allele, only the dominant allele is
expressed, and the recessive allele is silent.
C. One allele for the monogenic trait is on the paternally derived chromosome, and
the other allele is on the maternally derived chromosome.
D. Expression of more than two alleles of any single-gene trait results in enhanced
expression of recessive alleles and suppressed expression of dominant alleles.
____ 18. Under what normal condition are genotype and phenotype always the same?
A. Euploidy of alleles
B. Aneuploidy of alleles
C. Homozygosity of alleles
D. Heterozygosity of alleles
____ 19. What would be the expected result of a drug that affected a particular tissue by causing new
DNA to form with covalent bonds instead of hydrogen bonds?
A. None of the cells in the affected tissue would be able to leave G0 and enter the cell
cycle.
B. Replication of DNA would result in identical DNA strands instead of
complementary strands.
C. Mitosis of cells in the tissue would result in the production of three new daughter
cells instead of just two.
D. The new cells that formed within this tissue would not be able to complete the next
round of mitosis successfully.
____ 20. How does the DNA enzyme topoisomerase contribute to DNA replication?
A. Unwinds the double helix and separates the double-stranded DNA
B. Creates a “nick” in the DNA supercoils, allowing them to straighten before
replication
C. Initiates DNA synthesis in multiple sites down the strand, making the process more
efficient
, Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition Test Bank
D. Connects and links the individual pieces of newly synthesized DNA to form a
single strand
____ 21. Where is telomeric DNA located?
A. At the tips of the p and q arms of chromosomes.
B. In the mitochondria of all somatic cells
C. Only in the germ cells (ova and sperm)
D. Within the histones of the solenoid
____ 22. What is the purpose of a chromosome centromere?
A. Connecting sister chromatids to form a chromosome
B. Preventing the chromosome arm tips from unraveling
C. Allowing chromatids to separate during DNA replication
D. Ensuring that DNA replication proceeds only in the 3'-to-5' direction
____ 23. Which genetic process would be disrupted in one cell if it could not form chromosomes?
A. DNA replication
B. Gene-directed protein synthesis
C. Delivery of genetic information to new cells
D. Conversion of a nucleoside into a nucleotide
____ 24. What are the expected expressed blood types of children born to a mother who is B/O for
blood type and a father who is A/B for blood type?
A. 25% A, 25% B, 25% O, 25% AB
B. 25% A, 50% B, 0% O, 25% AB
C. 50% A, 25% B, 25% O, 0% AB
D. 50% A, 25% B, 0% O, 25% AB
____ 25. A person’s karyotype shows 44 autosomes and one X chromosome. What is the best
interpretation of this karyotype?
A. The karyotype is aneuploid, and the individual has only one allele for each of the
genes on the X chromosome.
B. The karyotype is aneuploid, and the individual is experiencing the pathologic
condition of haploidy.
C. The karyotype is euploid, making the individual a genotypic female and a
phenotypic male.
D. The karyotype is euploid, making the individual a genotypic male and a
phenotypic female.
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