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NURS 505 EXAM 3 PREPU (25, 27) (39, 40, 41)-12
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NURS 505 EXAM 3 PREPU (25, 27) (39, 40, 41)-12
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NURS 505 EXAM 3 PREPU (25, 27) (39, 40, 41)A woman who has been prescribed high doses of anabolic steroids should be instructed
on which effects?
a)Masculinization
b)Immobility of joints c)Obesity
d)Hypotension - Answers-a)Masculinization
The patient will need to be instructed on masculinization. The patient should have
increased joint mobility. Obesity is not a reaction to the anabolic steroids. The patient is
at risk for hypertension, not hypotension.
A client is started on terbutaline therapy. What would indicate that the therapy has been
successful?
a) The mother did not require any labor induction.
b) Premature birth is avoided for at least 24 hours.
c) There has been less or no bleeding in the delivery.
d) The mother does not experience adverse effects. - Answers-b) Premature birth is
avoided for at least 24 hours
Terbutaline drug therapy is considered effective when all the following have been
achieved: the premature contractions decrease in intensity and frequency; the woman
and fetus do not experience adverse effects; and premature birth is avoided for at least
24 hours so that administered corticosteroids can exert their beneficial effects.
Terbutaline is not to be given for labor induction but to stop preterm labor.
A nurse caring for a 43-year-old client explains to the client that ovarian functions
gradually decrease around this age. What is the implication of decreased ovarian
function?
a) Susceptibility to fractures b) Increases the risk of heart disease
c) Changes in sexual response
d) Inability to become pregnant - Answers-d) inability to become pregnant
Because of the decrease in ovarian functions, the client loses the ability to become
pregnant. Loss of estrogen makes the client susceptible to fractures and also increases
the risk of heart disease. Changes in sexual response are usually related to physical
changes in the vagina.
By about which day in the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?
a) 5
b) 14
, c) 21
d) 28 - Answers-b) 14
The human sexual response involves the activation of which system?
a) Endocrine system
b) Parasympathetic nervous system
c) Sympathetic nervous system
d) Urinary system - Answers-c) sympathetic nervous system
The human sexual response involves activation of the sympathetic nervous system to
allow a four-phase response: stimulation, plateau, climax, and resolution.
A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client. The nurse understands that a
PDE5 inhibitor would be inappropriate for a client taking:
a) Ketoconazole.
b) Indinavir.
c) Nitroglycerin.
d) Erythromycin. - Answers-c) nitroglycerin
The PDE5 inhibitors cannot be taken in combination with any organic nitrates or alpha-
adrenergic blockers because serious cardiovascular effects may occur, including death.
Increased PDE5 inhibitor levels and effects may be seen with ketoconazole, indinavi r,
and erythromycin; the dosage of the inhibitor would need to be reduced.
The nurse is discussing the human response to sexual stimulation with a client
experiencing an arousal problem. In which phase of sexual response should the client
begin to feel the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?
a) Stimulation
b) Plateau
c) Climax
d) Recovery - Answers-a) stimulation
A period of stimulation with mild increases in sensitivity and beginning stimulation of the
sympathetic nervous system. None of the remaining phases are associated with the
initiation of the sympathetic nervous system.
Menarche - Answers-Refers to the onset of the first menstrual cycle
A 24-year-old female athlete is using high doses of anabolic steroids to enhance her
performance. She may be at risk for which condition?
a) Acne
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