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NR 293 final pharm exam study guide questions and answers

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Antacids containing magnesium salts commonly causes ____ -Correct Answer Diarrhea Antacids containing aluminum salts commonly causes ____ -Correct Answer Constipation Antacids containing calcium salts commonly causes _____ -Correct Answer Constipation + Kidney Stones What are the adverse e...

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NR 293: final pharm



NR 293 final pharm exam study guide
questions and answers 2024-2025
Antacids containing magnesium salts commonly causes ____ -Correct Answer
✔Diarrhea

Antacids containing aluminum salts commonly causes ____ -Correct Answer
✔Constipation

Antacids containing calcium salts commonly causes _____ -Correct Answer
✔Constipation + Kidney Stones

What are the adverse effects of adsorbents [antidiarrheal drugs]? -Correct Answer
✔increased bleeding time, constipation, dark stool, confusion, tinnitus, metallic taste,
blue gums

What are the adverse effects of anti-motility drugs? -Correct Answer ✔urinary retention,
impotence [ED], headache, dizziness, anxiety, drowsiness, bradycardia, hypotension,
dry skin, flushing, and blurred vision

What are the adverse effects of opiates? -Correct Answer ✔drowsiness, dizziness,
lethargy, nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotension, urinary retention, flushing,
respiratory depression

What are the two most common toxicities associated with amino glycoside
administration? -Correct Answer ✔nephrotoxicity [renal damage]

ototoxicity [affect hearing + balance function]

Major adverse effects are caused by anti fungal drugs when administered in
combination with ampothericin B. What actions should the health care professional
initiate? -Correct Answer ✔Administer pre medications [antipyretic or acetaminophen,
antihistamine, antiemetic, and corticosteroid] to minimize or prevent infusion related
reactions

fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, malaise, muscle and joint pain, anorexia,
nausea, vomiting, and headache



**During IV infusions, monitor patient q15-30 minutes**




NR 293: final pharm

,NR 293: final pharm


Which antibiotic is indicated to treat MRSA infection through IV administration? -Correct
Answer ✔Vancomycin [Vancocin]

**parenteral form used to treat bone, joint, and bacterial blood infections from
staphylococcus spp.**

What are the most common adverse effects associated with Vancomycin drug
administration? -Correct Answer ✔Red man syndrome- flushing and itching of head,
face, neck, and upper trunk area when drug is infused too quickly

hypotension from drug being infused too quickly

additive neuromuscular blocking effects in patients taking neuromuscular blockers

**alleviate adverse effects by slowing rate of infusion of drug dose over 1 HOUR**

The health care provider MUST monitor serum drug levels to ensure therapeutic levels
and prevent toxicity during vancomycin drug administration. What are the inappropriate
levels and associated adverse effects? -Correct Answer ✔< 5 mcg/mL --> reduced
antibacterial effect

> 50 mcg/mL --> ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

What is the drug mechanism of action of vancomycin? -Correct Answer ✔binds to
bacterial cell wall --> immediate inhibition of cell wall synthesis --> bacterial death

The oral drug form of vancomycin is indicated to treat which infection? -Correct Answer
✔C. Difficile and staphylococcal enterocolitis

poor absorption from GI tract

What is important before administering antibiotic drug therapy? -Correct Answer ✔It is
ESSENTIAL to obtain cultures from appropriate sites BEFORE beginning antibiotic
therapy to identify the causative organism and potential antibiotic susceptible to
determine if empire therapy is effective for destroying the bacteria

What is important when initiating treatment of Oseltamivir [Tamiflu] or Zanamivir
[Relenza] indicated for influenza infections? -Correct Answer ✔Treatment NEEDS to
begin within TWO DAYS of symptom onset

What are the four stages of HIV infection according to the WHO model? -Correct
Answer ✔1. **Asymptomatic infection**
○ Few weeks or months after initial exposure to virus
○ Asymptomatic but show signs of lymphadenopathy
○ Virus is present in blood at low levels


NR 293: final pharm

, NR 293: final pharm


2. **Early, general symptoms of disease**
○ Lymphadenopathy, fever, rash, sore throat, night sweats, malaise, diarrhea,
idiopathic thrombocytopenia, oral candiasis, shingles
○ Pt's own antibodies [HIV antibodies] appear in blood 3 wks. - 3 mo. Post exposure
3. **Moderate symptoms**
○ Weight loss, chronic diarrhea, fever, CD4 counts drop
4. **Severe symptoms --> death**
○ Increased viral replication --> increased destruction of helper T cells and CD4 counts
[death = < 50 cells]

Which class of drugs [-QUINE] may be used in combination with sulfonamide,
tetracycline, and clindamycin for a synergistic or additive killing power? -Correct Answer
✔Antimalarial Drugs

Which antimalarial drug is used to treat malaria infections AND cardiac dysrhythmias by
decreasing excitability of cardiac and skeletal muscle? -Correct Answer ✔Quinidine

What is the drug mechanism of action for Metronidazole [Flagyl]? -Correct Answer
✔interfere with DNA --> inhibits protein synthesis --> cell death

directly kills protozoans by causing free-radical reactions that damage DNA

When used for prophylactic treatment, which class of drugs should be started 1 to 2
weeks BEFORE potential exposure to ____ and 4 to 8 weeks AFTER leaving the area?
-Correct Answer ✔Antimalarial Drugs

What are the most common adverse effects related to antibiotic therapy? -Correct
Answer ✔nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

What is important to remember when administering [-CILIN] drugs? -Correct Answer
✔DO NOT administer a [-CILIN] if known drug allergy to penicillin.

Which class of drugs may have a potential cross-sensitivity if administered with
PENICILLIN? -Correct Answer ✔Potential cross-sensitivity with penicillin if allergies to
CEPHALOSPORIN exist

Similar to penicillin therefore allergic reaction is likely

ONLY patients who had serious anaphylactic reaction to penicillin DO NOT administer
cephalosporin drug [swelling or hives]


Monitor patients for an allergic reaction for AT LEAST 30 minutes AFTER drug
administration




NR 293: final pharm

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