LSU SVM PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 3
LATEST 2024 VERSION TEST QUESTION
WITH ALL CORRECT SOLUTIONS
Neurologic signs, hypotension, proarrhythmic effects - Answer-What are three signs of
class Ia antiarrhythmic toxicity
Quinidine, procainamide - Answer-2 class 1a drugs that block the sodium channels and
delay depolarization and increase the action potential duration
Anticholinergic activity (facilitates AV nodal conduction) - Answer-What is one unique
aspect of quinidine (what other effect does it have on the heart besides blocking Na
channels)
Class Ia and III - Answer-Which two drug classes of antiarrhythmic drugs should not be
mixed because they both prolong the action potential duration
Procainamide - Answer-____ is a class Ia antiarrhythmic drug that has an immediate
onset of action and drops below therapeutic levels very quickly once its not being
administered so you should always give a bolus to reach therapeutic levels and then
give as CRI
Na, shorten - Answer-Mechanism of action of class Ib antiarrhythmics: fast ____
channel blockers, ____ AP duration
Ventricular arrhythmias - Answer-What is the indication for class Ib antiarrhythmic drugs
Neurologic signs, GI signs, renal dysfunction - Answer-What are three signs of class Ib
antiarrhythmic toxicity
Lidocaine, mexiletine - Answer-What are two class 1b antiarrhythmics?
Mexiletine - Answer-____ is considered oral lidocaine so it is used for chronic treatment
of ventricular arrhythmias; well absorbed from GI with low first pass effect
Supraventricular arrhythmias, ventricular arrhythmias - Answer-Indications for class II
(beta blockers) antiarrhytmics
Decreases, increases, damaged - Answer-Drug effects of class II antiarrhythmics: ____
pacemaker automaticity, ____ refractory period of AV node (slows conduction), reduces
conduction velocity in ____ atria, ventricles, and purkinje fibers
, Bradycardia, negative ionotropic, decrease CO, hypotension, bronchospasm,
aggravation of CHF - Answer-What are 6 signs of class II antiarrhythmic toxicity
Propranolol, atenolol, esmolol - Answer-What are three class II antiarrhythmic drugs
Propranolol - Answer-____ is a non-selective beta blocker that is well absorbed orally
but does have rapid first pass effect; metabolism primarily in liver; decreased clearance
in hyperthyroid cats
Esmolol - Answer-____ is a primarily beta 1 selective blocker, administered IV, rapidly
distributed but not in CNS/spleen/testes, metabolized in blood by esterases; often used
in emergency setting
K, prolong, increase - Answer-Mechanism of action of class III antiarrhytmics: most
block ____ channels and ____ repolarization thereby these drugs ____ APD and
prolong AV conduction
Supraventricular arrhythmias, ventricular arrhythmias - Answer-What are two indications
for class III antiarrhytmics?
Sotalol - Answer-____ is a class III antiarrhythmic and non-selective beta blocker to
prolong action potential duration and refractoriness; food reduces bioavailability,
elimination via kidney; most common antiarrhythmic used
Amiodarone - Answer-____ prolongs myocardial cell action duration and refractory
period via non-competitive alpha and beta blockage; metabolized by liver to active
metabolite; toxicity presents as GI sings, hepatopathy, corneal deposits, pulmonary
fibrosis, or thyroid dysfunction
Supraventricular arrhythmias that involve AV re-entry and ectopic stimulation - Answer-
What is the indication for class IV antiarrhythmics
Ca, depresses, depresses, prolongs - Answer-Mechanism of action of class IV
antiarrhythmics: blocks ____ channels, ____ AV node conduction, ____ normal and
abnormal automaticity, and ____ effective refractory period
Bradycardia, hypotension, aggravation of CHF - Answer-What are three signs of class
IV antiarrhythmic toxicity
Diltiazem - Answer-What is the most common class IV antiarrhythmic used
Diltiazem - Answer-____ is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that inhibits
transmembrane flux of calcium ions; slows AV nodal conduction and prolongs refractory
times; rapidly and completely metabolized in the liver; long acting
