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ANCC FNP EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!$30.49
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ANCC FNP EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
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Course
ANCC FNP
Institution
ANCC FNP
ANCC FNP EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND
NEW VERSION!!
ANCC FNP EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
NEWEST 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND
NEW VERSION!!
A 25-year-old runner with no PMH complains of pain in the ball
of her foot. She has been experiencing this pain for 3 months,
and the pain also spreads to her toes occasionally. It is mitigated
by rest and relaxation and is aggravated by running. The pain
occurs at all times of the day and is not related to psychological
stress, sleep, or temperature. She recently started running a lot
more every day and has noticed that her new shoes seem a little
tight.
The patient's temperature = 98.3°F, HR = 70, RR = 16, and BP =
115/75. Physical exam reveals tenderness over the ball of the
foot and over her metatarsals as well. Her foot also appears to be
quite arched. The patient has no trouble putting weight on the
foot and does not have any erythema, swelling, or discoloration.
What is the best step in management?
A. Conservative therapy (rest, ice, NSAIDs)
B. X-ray of foot
,2|Page
C. MRI of foot
D. Arch support and orthotics of fo - CORRECT ANSWER-
Correct Answer: A. Conservative therapy (rest, ice, NSAIDs)
Rationale; Metatarsalgia is pain on metatarsal heads that results
in tenderness over the ball of the foot and sometimes the toes.
Patients who run a lot or who wear tight-fitting shoes often
complain of these symptoms. The symptoms are worsened by
running and improve with rest and relaxation. It also presents
with an arched foot and excess pronation of the foot.
Metatarsalgia is not a serious condition and does not result in
complications typically. Most cases of metatarsalgia heal within
months, and this self-limited condition can be treated with
conservative management.
Incorrect Answers:
B. and C. Stress fractures are fatigued-induced fractures of the
bones of the body from repeated overuse. They are diagnosed by
X-ray and MRI of the foot. Rather than occurring suddenly, the
fracture happens gradually, especially in athletes such as long-
distance runners. Patients describe initially dull pain that
increases in severity and frequency over time, sometimes to the
point that the pain may occur at rest. Physical exam reveals a
lack of crepitus, possible deformation, and sometimes leg-length
discrepancy. Our patient does not exhibit signs of a stress
fracture, stress fracture typically does not present with the ball
of the foot pain, and there is no worsening of the pain over time.
Thus, no imaging is indicated here.
,3|Page
D. Arch supports and orthotics are a reasonable way to treat
metatarsalgia. However, it is easier to start with conservative
management first, and if that fails, then this is a viable option.
A parent presents to your clinic with her four year old daughter
who just started pre-kindergarten. She states her daughter has
been complaining of headache and sore throat for a couple of
days and has had a mild fever. She was just treating it at home
until she noticed small blisters in her daughter's mouth and
hands. She's concerned her daughter has contracted something
from a child at school. You diagnose her child with Hand-foot-
mouth disease and prescribe:
A. Tamiflu
B. Penicillin 500mg three times a day for ten days
C. Acyclovir five times per day for ten days
D. Treat symptoms with ibuprofen or acetaminophen, cold fluids
and salt water gargles - CORRECT ANSWER-Correct Answer:
D. Treat symptoms with ibuprofen or acetaminophen, cold fluids
and salt water gargles
Rationale; This is a viral, self-limiting condition that requires
only symptomatic treatment.
Incorrect Answers:
A. This is not influenza. Tamiflu is indicated within 72 hours of
influenza onset.
, 4|Page
B. This is not a streptococcal infection. These symptoms may be
confused with streptococcal pharyngitis however, the blisters on
the hands would refute this diagnosis.
C. This is not varicella. Varicella vesicles are more widespread.
Vital Concepts:
Hand-foot-mouth disease is a viral, self-limiting condition that
requires only symptomatic treatment.
An otherwise-healthy 32-year-old G2P2 calls her primary
obstetrician in January, 8 days after an uncomplicated vaginal
delivery at 39 weeks. She has had fevers to 101.9°F, cough, and
muscle aches. She thinks that one of her friends may have had a
similar illness the past week. She received the influenza vaccine
during her pregnancy. She has no vaginal bleeding or discharge
and no abdominal pain besides the aforementioned myalgias.
She is breastfeeding. She has had a slight loss of appetite but
otherwise no gastrointestinal upset. Which of the following steps
is indicated?
A. Conservative management of symptoms without antiviral
medication
B. Maternal-neonatal separation
C. Temporary cessation of breastfeeding (i.e. dumping breast
milk and formula feeding)
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