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FLEXJET INDOC TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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FLEXJET INDOC TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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  • November 2, 2024
  • 16
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • Flexjet
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GEEKA
FLEXJET INDOC TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. After ditching in water , passengers and crewmembers should wait to inflate their life
vests until they have exited the aircraft . - Answers- True 8.3.5

2. An Acceleration Height or Obstacle Clearance Altitude is a part of every APG Special
Departure Procedure . - Answers- True 7.3.1

3. You must determine if increases in runway length requirements are specified for the
aircraft if you are planning to turn on the engine anti - ice protection system prior to take
off . - Answers- True

4. The takeoff weight must be limited so as not to exceed any brake energy limitation for
the flight . - Answers- True 4-67

5. One acceptable method for determining aircraft performance and obstacle clearance
data is ... - Answers- APG data .

6. If contaminated runway data exists ( approved or non - approved ) for the aircraft , it
will be used to determine required runway for departure and landing on contaminated
runways . - Answers- True

7. Crews are authorized to accept and fly RNAV Q Routes - Answers- True

8. Prior to using GPS based navigation systems crews must verify that RAIM is
available . - Answers- True

9. When cleared for an RNAV departure , crews must ensure that the following is
correctly loaded in the navigation system ... - Answers- The entire RNAV DP segment is
retrieved from the area navigation database by procedure name , the correct departure
runway must be loaded , and the correct transition must be loaded .

10. Pilot crewmembers will receive an updated weather briefing within 30 minutes prior
to landing at the destination . - Answers- True

11. When flying RNAV departure manually selecting bank limiting ( half bank ) may
reduce ability to satisfy ATC path expectations . - Answers- True

12. Government charts ( NACO ) are only authorized for training purposes . Jeppesen
charts that are provided on the EFBS must be used for all passenger carrying
operations . - Answers- False

13. When are you prohibited from accepting a " line up and wait " clearance ? -
Answers- Night or day with visibility less than 1 mile , unless the crew can be assured
that the departure runway is not being used for arrivals . 4.11.11

,14. Visual approaches at night are only authorized at airports that are served by ... -
Answers- An Instrument approach with Category D circling minimums unless the airport
is listed in the Special Use Airport listing in Appendix 3 , and that listing authorizes night
visual approaches . 4.14.14.3

15. Restrictions for airports listed in Appendix 3 High Altitude / Special Use Airports are
... - Answers- specifically stated for each listed airport under the Night Operations ,
Weather Minimums for IAP and Other Restrictions columns .

16. When the autopilot is engaged the PF will make and verbalize changes on the flight
director panel . - Answers- True 4.7.3

17. While conducting a visual approach to a runway that is served by a precision
Instrument Approach Procedure ( IAP ) , it is required that the crew will have that
approach tuned and displayed on the navigation unit and shall use the navigation
information to correctly identify the intended airport and runway . - Answers- True

18. Pilots are authorized to conduct contact approaches . - Answers- False

19. Which document ( s ) contain information regarding operations during ground icing
conditions ? - Answers- All the above

20. As part of the post de - icing inspection , the crew must verify that which of the
following items are free of frozen contaminants ? - Answers- All are correct

21. A Pre - Takeoff Contamination Check will be conducted when ... - Answers- ground
icing conditions exist . 14 CFR 135.227 , Ops Spec A041 , FOM section 7

22. A tactile pre - takeoff contamination check will be conducted ... - Answers- All the
above .

23. When conducting operations in ground icing conditions , holdover timetables are
only required to be referenced if using a Type IV anti - ice solution . - Answers- False

24. You have determined that a Pre - Takeoff Contamination Check must be conducted .
When must the check be completed ? - Answers- Within 5 minutes before takeoff

25. Winter operations information is found in which source document ( s ) ? - Answers-
FOM section 7

26. The preferred fluids for anti - icing are ... - Answers- Type II and IV

27. What can be said about de - ice / anti - ice fluids ? - Answers- All the above
statements are true .

, 28. We are prohibited from departing during ground icing conditions , if our holdover
time ( HOT ) has been exceeded . - Answers- False

29. When does holdover time begin ? - Answers- At the beginning of the final
application of de - ice / anti - ice fluid .

30. It is acceptable to polish frost smooth using something such as a rag or paper prior
to departure . - Answers- False

31. When conducting a night arrival into KEGE , crews may only use runway 25 , and
must use the LDA / DME RWY 25 approach . The glideslope and PAPI must be
operational . - Answers- True

32. A high minimums PIC may not use lower than standard takeoff minimums
authorized in Op Spec C079 . - Answers- True

33. Text / Table DPS / ODPs ( Takeoff and Obstacle Departure Procedures ) are
considered the standard IFR departure procedure . If ATC does not specify any other
particular departure procedure prior to takeoff , a crewmember must comply with the
departure procedure established by the FAA for the airport and runway to be used . -
Answers- True

35. If ATC issues an instruction that is contrary to a TCAS RA , you must comply with
ATC's instructions . - Answers- False

36. When conducting a visual approach , the multi - function display ( MFD ) , if
available , should be continuously adjusted to the lowest scale which allows the
destination airport to remain visible . - Answers- True

37. A runway that is grooved or has porous friction overlay is considered to be dry ,
even when it is well soaked and there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to
cause it to appear reflective . - Answers- False

38. What is the minimum length of available runway necessary for land and hold short
operations ( LAHSO ) ? - Answers- The Company is not authorized to conduct land and
hold short operations .

39. A runway with more than 25 percent of the runway surface area within the required
length and width being used covered by standing water is considered to be ... -
Answers- Contaminated

40. DAAP restrictions include ... the runway must have an approved and operational
visual guidance system or serviced by an operational glide slope ( i.e. , ILS , LPV ,
LNAV / VNAV , FMS Visual with VGP ) unless a DAAP exception has been granted . -
Answers- True

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