VASCULAR ARDMS BOARDS DAVIES Exam Questions And Answers 100% Pass
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Course
VASCULAR
Institution
VASCULAR
VASCULAR ARDMS BOARDS DAVIES
Exam Questions And Answers 100% Pass
What's the first major arterial branch of the aorta is the? - answerInnominate artery or
brachiocephalic artery
The vertebral artery usually arises from the: - answerSubclavian Artery
The incidence of new strokes per year is: - ...
VASCULAR ARDMS BOARDS DAVIES
Exam Questions And Answers 100% Pass
What's the first major arterial branch of the aorta is the? - answer✔Innominate artery or
brachiocephalic artery
The vertebral artery usually arises from the: - answer✔Subclavian Artery
The incidence of new strokes per year is: - answer✔from 500,000 to 700,000
The abbreviation TIA stands for: - answer✔Transient Ischemic Attack
A TIA of the right anterior hemisphere of the brain will likely affect: - answer✔The left side of
the body - affects the side of the body opposite that of the ischemic hemisphere
Amaurosis Fugax related to an internal carotid lesion will cause: - answer✔Temporary blindness
or shadowing of the ipsilateral eye. affects same side since thromboembolic activity from
ulcerated ipsilateral carotid atheroma is suspected
A transient ischemic attack: - answer✔Resolves within 24 hours. TIA often last just a few
minutes
Simultaneous bilateral ocular symptoms in the patient with suspected cerebrovascular disease
generally originate form: - answer✔The vertebrobasilar arteries . usually originate in the
posterior circulation , as the visual cortex is in the occipital lobe. The specific binocular
symptom of homonymous hemianopia results from obstruction of a middle cerebral artery
branch, not the vertebrobasilar system
What are symptoms when vertebrobasilar circulation is effected? - answer✔Vertigo, dizziness,
ataxia, or other bilateral or global symptoms .
What are symptoms when anterior circulation is effected? - answer✔Facial Asymmetry,
unilateral
What accurately defines RIND also called stroke with recovery? - answer✔A neurologic
ischemic deficit that resolves completely after 24 hours. Describes an intracranial ischemic
event that does not resolve within 24 hours but thereafter completely resolves.
A 56- year old patient reports loss of vision in her left eye two days ago, with total resolution in
10 minutes. Yesterday morning she developed weakness and numbness in her right hand and
was unable to hold her coffee cup. This afternoon her hand strength is about 90% normal, with
normal sensation. Clinically she has: - answer✔Stroke because it has persisted longer than 24
hours and has not resolved completely
The infraorbital artery is a terminal branch of the: - answer✔Maxillary Artery . It creates one of
the potential anastomoses with orbital branches that can provide collateral pathways in the
even of carotid obstruction
Amaurosis Fugax can be interpreted as a: - answer✔Transient Ischemic Attack of the eye.
Dysphagia is : - answer✔Difficulty swallowing. Symptom associated with vertebrobasilar
insufficiency.
A binocular disturbance that disrupts vision in half the visual field of both eyes is called: -
answer✔Homonymous Hemianopia
Paresthesia refers to: - answer✔tingling sensation
A patient describes a 30-minute episode of garbled speech. This is called: - answer✔Dysphasia .
Aphasia is widely used as well but technically this is incorrect, since it means "absence of
speech."
A right-handed patient experiences a 30-minute episode of dysphasia. Which area of circulation
is suspect? - answer✔Left hemisphere . The speech area of the cortex is in the temporal lobe of
the dominant hemisphere
What is true regarding subclavian steal? - answer✔It is usually a harmless hemodynamic
phenomenon. It is caused by arterial obstruction proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery.
This creates an abnormal pressure gradient that pulls or "steals" flow from the vertebral artery
to perfuse the ipsilateral upper extremity.
Subclavian steal occurs: - answer✔more often on left side .
A hemispheric stroke usually affects: - answer✔The middle cerebral artery distribution and the
contralateral side of the body
Stenosis of the following vessel presents the highest risk for a TIA: - answer✔Internal Carotid
Artery
The vertebral arteries branch from the subclavian arteries to unite and form the: -
answer✔Basilar Artery . This system is called the vertebrobasilar system and is responsible for
the circulation to the posterior portion of the brain .
A decreased pulse at mid neck is suggestive of: - answer✔Common Carotid stenosis if the
contralateral pulse is normal. Sometimes the right neck pulse can feel reduced because of the
larger muscles overlying the carotid. Occasionally the right neck feels stronger due to tortuosity
of the common carotid Artery.
What is NOT true regarding carotid bruit? - answer✔The absence of a bruit rules out significant
stenosis.
What are bruits caused by? - answer✔Turbulent flow. Presence of a bruit is significant, since
there is turbulent flow for some reason. The absence of a bruit does not rule out stenosis;
severe stenosis may not cause a bruit.
Bruits heard bilaterally, loudest low in the neck, are most likely caused by: - answer✔Aortic
Valve Stenosis. Aortic murmurs radiate distally, frequently into the low carotids.
A stronger pulse is palpated in the right neck than on the left. This could result from all the
following except: - answer✔Innominate occlusion which would be expected to make the right
carotid pulse weaker, not stronger.
What is true regarding the clinical detection of a bruit? - answer✔It means that turbulent flow
exists. It may be indicative of valvular dysfunction in the heart. This finding may be normal in
parts of some vessels and during periods of enhanced flow.
During ordinary auscultation of a carotid bifurcation, the detection of a bruit that extends into
diastole is: - answer✔Highly significant for carotid artery stenosis or for any other arterial
location. Perhaps this is related to the fact that elevated end-diastolic velocities are suggestive
of severe stenosis.
Which of these conditions is least likely to cause a bruit in the neck? - answer✔Critical
preocclusive stenosis of the internal carotid artery. Bruits often disappear when the stenosis is
very high-grade or preocclusive.
Why are brachial blood pressures obtained bilaterally when evaluating a patient for
cerebrovascular disease? - answer✔The brachial blood pressures are compared to see if they
are equal. If one pressure is 15-20mmHg less than the other, subclavian steal is suspected on
the side of the lower pressure.
All of the following statements apply to pulsed-wave Doppler Except: - answer✔The beam is
continuously transmitted with intermittent reception according to vessel depth.
How is the signal transmitted with pulsed-wave Doppler? - answer✔In short bursts or pulses,
and the transducer "listens" for the reflected signal in between the transmitted pulses.
Loss of the spectral window with pulsed Doppler ultrasound occurs with: - answer✔Flow
turbulence
What is the spectral window? - answer✔Is the blank area underneath the systolic peak on the
spectral waveform. It is filled in or "lost" when turbulent flow creates spectral broadening.
Other reasons for loss of the spectral window include overuse of Doppler gain and incorrect
positioning of the sample volume outside of the center streamline (depicting signals from the
vessel wall or adjacent slower moving blood flow).
The first intracranial branch of the internal carotid artery is the: - answer✔Ophthalmic artery.
Even though there is often a branch called the caroticotympanic artery, the ophthalmic artery is
regarded as the first major branch of the internal carotid artery. It is central to indirect
physiological testing.
A duplex image of the carotid bifurcation that demonstrates a goblet-like configuration of the
internal and external branches curving around a highly vascularized mass suggests: -
answer✔Carotid body tumor
In duplex imaging, the best arterial wall image quality is obtained when the beam is at the
following angle to the artery walls: - answer✔90 degrees. More echoes return to the transducer
with 90 degrees
Transcranial findings consistent with vasospasm following subarachnoid hemorrhage would
include: - answer✔Greatly increased mean velocities in the middle cerebral artery.
In TCD, the normal direction of flow in the vertebral artery is: - answer✔away from the beam .
From the suboccipital, foramen magnum, approach, flow should normally be away from the
beam.
What is a condition that TCD might not be useful for ? - answer✔Temporal Arteritis
The Doppler beam angle considered optimal for standardization of duplex carotid studies at
most vascular labs is: - answer✔60 degrees. It is generally accepted , to make consistent
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