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CPN Study Guide Exam Questions 1-100 with 100% Correct Answers.

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CPNStudyGuideExamQuestions1-100with100% CorrectAnswers. A 6-week-old male infant is brought into the ED by his mother. He has a weeklong history of progressively worsening emesis that is projectile in nature. What is his most likely diagnosis? A. Intussusception. B. Appendicitis. C. Pyloric...

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  • November 4, 2024
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CPN Study Guide Exam Questions 1-100 with 100%
Correct Answers.
A 6-week-old male infant is brought into the ED by his mother. He has a weeklong history
of
progressively worsening emesis that is projectile in nature. What is his most likely
diagnosis?
A. Intussusception.
B. Appendicitis.
C. Pyloric stenosis.
D. Pancreatitis. - Correct Answer C: Projectile vomiting in a 6 week-old male is the classic
presentation for pyloric stenosis,
obstruction of the pyloric sphincter between the gastric pylorus and the small intestine,
caused by
hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the circular muscle of the pylorus, which obstructs the
sphincter.


An 8-year-old male has contracted chicken pox (varicella virus). With which of the
following
family members can the child have contact?
A. 20-year-old aunt on chemotherapy.
B. 35-year-old uncle with HIV.
C. 95-year-old grandfather on long-term steroid therapy.
D. 2-year-old brother who has never had varicella but has had the vaccine - Correct
Answer D: The 2-year-old brother, who has had the vaccine, is likely immune to varicella,
so contact
is safe. All of the other relatives have some form of immunosuppression from infection
(HIV) or
medications (chemotherapy and steroids) and should avoid contact with the patient


A 5-year-old girl has a fever, headache, and complaints of a stiff neck. The physician
suspects

,bacterial meningitis. What is the best test culture site to detect the bacteria?
A. Lumbar puncture.
B. Clean catch urine.
C. Blood culture.
D. Nasal swab. - Correct Answer A: Lumbar puncture is the method of choice for detecting
the bacteria causing bacterial
meningitis and sending a sample for culture, as meningitis infects the meninges and
bacteria is
present in the cerebrospinal fluid.


A 2-year-old child has severe dental caries in the upper and lower front teeth, posterior
aspects.
What is the most likely cause for this type of caries?
A. Lack of fluoridation in the water.
B. Sleeping with water in a nighttime bottle.
C. Low carbohydrate diet.
D. Sleeping with sugared liquid in nighttime bottle - Correct Answer D: Caries in the
posterior front teeth is a sign of sleeping with sugared drinks in the
nighttime bottle (such as juice) because fluid pools in the mouth when the child falls to
sleep.


***Which of the following patients will likely need surgical correction of his/her fracture?***
A. 10-year-old with humeral head fracture.
B. 5-year-old with tuft fracture of the distal phalanx.
C. 4-year-old with tuft fracture of the toe.
D. 16-year-old with radial head fracture. - Correct Answer A: Humeral head fractures
usually need open reduction and internal fixation to maintain
proper future functioning. Distal phalanx and toe fractures are treated with splints and
fracture of
the radial head with a sling.

,An infant with a chronic respiratory condition should be offered all of the following
vaccines
EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis A.
B. Hepatitis B.
C. Hepatitis C.
D. Influenza. - Correct Answer C: A vaccine for Hepatitis C does not currently exist.
Hepatitis A, hepatitis B and influenza
vaccines are all recommended for the infant


A 14-year-old boy with leukemia is receiving an IV infusion of packed red blood cells. The
client
reports that he is feeling anxious and short of breath even though his respiratory rate is 24.
What should the nurse do in this situation?
A. Give a dose of ibuprofen (Motrin).
B. Give a dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
C. Give a dose of diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
D. Stop infusion and notify physician. - Correct Answer D: Anxiety and the sensation of
breathlessness are signs of possible anaphylactic shock, a
reaction to the packed red blood cells, so the nurse should stop the infusion immediately
and notify
the physician.


As part of counseling for a 7-year-old child with mild persistent asthma, the nurse tells the
client's family that the most reliable indicator of worsening asthma is:
A. Coughing.
B. Fever.
C. Decreased peak flow.
D. Fatigue. - Correct Answer C: A decreased peak flow is the most reliable indicator that
asthma may be worsening. It is
therefore vital that the client's family know what the baseline is so that any deviation can
be quickly

, addressed. Coughing and fever may trigger asthma, so peak flows should be monitored.
Fatigue
may result from poor oxygenation but alone it is not a reliable indicator of worsening
asthma.


***A patient is experiencing dizziness, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, and nausea
caused by
encephalitis. Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes the patient's
condition?***
A. metabolic acidosis
B. respiratory alkalosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis - Correct Answer B: Respiratory alkalosis results from
hyperventilation, during which extra CO2 is excreted,
causing a decrease in carbonic acid (H2CO3) concentration in the plasma. Symptoms
include
tachycardia, arrhythmias, lightheadedness, nausea, and vomiting.


10-year-old male with sickle cell disease comes into the ED complaining of pain in his legs
due
to a vaso-occlusive crisis. In addition to IV fluids, what is the other initial treatment for this
client?
A. Elevate legs.
B. Ace wrap to legs.
C. Nitroglycerine paste.
D. Pain medication. - Correct Answer D: In addition to IV fluids, the other primary initial
treatment for sickle cell crisis resulting
in vascular occlusion is pain medication because pain is often severe. Other treatments
include
oxygen, hydroxyurea (anti-sickling medication), blood transfusions if anemia is
pronounced, and
antibiotics if the crisis was triggered by an infection.

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