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NURS 2060 Pharmacology WGU D NURS 2060 WGU D116 Pharmacology Exam Review Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
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NURS 2060 Pharmacology WGU D NURS 2060 WGU D116 Pharmacology Exam Review Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |

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Western Governors University
(WGU)
NURS 2060 Pharmacology WGU D116
WGU NURS 2060 D116 Midterm and Final Exam

Course Title and Number: NURS 2060 Pharmacology WGU
D116 Exam
Exam Title: WGU NURS 2060 D116 Midterm and Final Exam
Exam Date: Exam 2024- 2025
Instructor: [Insert Instructor’s Name]
Student Name: [Insert Student’s Name]
Student ID: [Insert Student ID]

Examination
180 minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.
4. Ensure all answers are final before submitting the exam.
5. Please answer each question below and click Submit when you have completed
the Exam.
6. This test has a time limit, The test will save and submit automatically when the
time expires
7. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course Learning
Resources.


Good Luck!

, For Inquiries about This or Any Other Exam HMU
📧

NURS 2060 Pharmacology WGU
D116 2024-2025 NURS 2060 WGU D116 Pharmacology
Exam Review Questions and Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the
Questions Correctly Good Luck: -


A patient presents to an emergency room complaining
of palpitations and irregular heartbeat. The advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on
a cardiac monitor and observes atrial fibrillation. The
APRN orders dofetilide.
How should the APRN recommend this medication be
taken? - Answer>> YES With food or an empty
stomach

A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest
pain that started after having sexual activity. He took
sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He has
nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse
respond? - Answer>> Do not take the nitroglycerin
and call 911

Taking the medications together can cause a serious
drop in blood pressure leading to cardiovascular
collapse.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a
mental health clinic is discussing the possibility of
beginning lithium with an advanced practice registered
nurse (APRN). The patient expresses understanding and
wishes to proceed with treatment. The APRN explains
to the patient that this medication requires specific lab
monitoring and wants to draw baseline labs. The
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patient asks why the test is
needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this
patient? - Answer>> A baseline blood urea nitrogen
(BUN) and creatinine (CREA) level needs to be drawn to
assess kidney function prior to treatment.

This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a
baseline should be drawn for future comparison.

An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is
reviewing the medications that will be commonly
experienced with a new nurse to determine whether
the drugs are safe for the patients. The new nurse is
given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed
sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile
dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely? - Answer>>
YES A 54-year-male with a medical history of
hypertension, mild eczema, and previous history of a
urolithiasis where all is well controlled and there are no
current complications

A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic
with a history of anxiety. The advanced practice
registered nurse reviews the mechanism of action by
which many neuropharmacological agents act and
decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication? -
Answer>> YES Influences receptor activity on target
cells

Correct! This medication influences the activity in the
receptors, and it targets cells.

A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington
disease. On admission, the patient exhibits
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uncontrolled twitching, difficulty
walking, trouble swallowing,
confusion, and memory loss. The advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication? -
Answer>> NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at
NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase
Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine,
serotonin, and dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the
breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase.
They are used in patients with Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of
the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric
acid in the basal ganglia and extrapyramidal system.

A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes
to a clinic for an emergency visit with an advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) following a seizure.
Upon interviewing the patient and the parent, the APRN
determines that the seizure is classified by marked
impairment of consciousness and is followed by a
period of central nervous system (CNS) depression.
Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing? -
Answer>> Atonic
NO Myoclonic
YES Tonic-clonic
Absence
Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden
muscle contraction that lasts for just one second.
Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that
is also called a convulsion. This type of seizure can
include muscle stiffness, loss of consciousness, and
body jerking.
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