Pharmacology Practice Quiz Exam Questions With Correct Answers.
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Course
Pharmacology
Institution
Pharmacology
Pharmacology Practice Quiz Exam Questions
With Correct Answers.
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal attack,
which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is re...
Pharmacology Practice Quiz Exam Questions
With Correct Answers.
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal attack,
which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is relieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - answer✔Client states chest pain is relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and reduces
chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was relieved, but are not as significant as the
client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C) may indicate a reduction in pain, or a potentially serious
side effect of the medication.
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a prescription
for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client to have which
diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - answer✔Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy is
a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion might be performed to
monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is monitored for the client receiving heparin therapy
(C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - answer✔Penicillin
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this
drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.
Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - answer✔Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases contractility,
thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that decreases both
heart rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen
consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts to
prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release oxycodone
prescription?
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe
pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain management.
Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule
(A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may
jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the optimum
time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose
is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - answer✔Immediately before the next
antibiotic dose is given
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just before the
next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an
antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin LMWH. During
administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is
the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - answer✔This medication is
a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
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