©THEBRIGHT EXAM SOLUTIONS
11/05/2024 12:06 PM
WHNP Board Review – Random. Exam
Questions With Correct Answers
Primary Amenorrhea - answer✔no menstruation by age 14 in absence of secondary sex characteristics,
or by 16 regardless of secondary sex characteristic development
Ovarian Cancer Risk Factors - answer✔Low Parity, Early Menarche, Late Menopause, history of breast,
colon, or endometrial cancer
Gonads should be removed after puberty in a person with androgen insensitivity or resistance syndrome
to PREVENT - answer✔gonadal malignancies. Gonads should be removed by 16-18 years in people with
androgen insensitivity/resistance to reduce risk of malignant transformation of gonads (5%). incidence is
rare before puberty.
A person with latent syphilis may present with - answer✔NO SIGNS OF INFECTION. detection is through
serological testing
This treatment for chlamydia shouldn't be used in pregnancy due to risk of TOOTH DISCOLORATION IN
CHILDREN. - answer✔doxycycline
PLISSET Model - answer✔May be used by non-sex therapists when counseling patients with sexual
dysfunction. P = permission giving, LI = Limited Information, SS = specific suggestions, IT = intensive
therapy
androgen insensitivity or resistance syndrome - answer✔genetically transmitted androgen receptor
defect. The individual is a genotypic male (46XY) but is phenotypically female, or has both female/male
characteristics. Will have normal breasts with small nipples/areola, scant/absent pubic hair, and no
uterus or ovaries. Testes are present and either partially descended or intraabdominal.
Most common benign neoplasm of cervix - answer✔polyp. most often in perimenopausal and
multigravida women between 30-50
Most common presenting symptom of vulvar cancer - answer✔Pruritus
Most common symptoms of vulvar cancer - answer✔vulvar pruritus, pain, bleeding, odorous discharge
that may be blood tinged, and lesions
, ©THEBRIGHT EXAM SOLUTIONS
11/05/2024 12:06 PM
potential causes for galactorrhea - answer✔hypo/hyper-thyroidism, use of opiates/cannabis, excessive
breast stimulation, pituitary adenoma, use of some medications
Lifetime risk of ovarian cancer - answer✔1-2%
Most common site of vaginal cancer - answer✔Upper 1/3 of vagina
Risk factors of endometrial cancer - answer✔Obesity, DM, HTN, family hx, early menarche, late
menopause, unopposed estrogen therapy, oligo-ovulation, anovulation, estrogen secreting tumors,
PCOS due to unopposed estrogen an anovulation
most common ovarian germ cell tumor is - answer✔DERMOID CYST aka benign cystic teratoma
Turner's Syndrome physical characteristics - answer✔lack of breast development, scant pubic hair,
normal uterus and vagina, absent or streak ovaries, short stature, webbed neck, shield chest with wide
spaced nipples. cardiac/renal anomalies may also be present.
advanced cervical cancer symptoms (mid) - answer✔irregular painless bleeding, odorous bloody or
purulent discharge,
late symptoms of cervical cancer - answer✔pelvic/epigastric pain, urinary/rectal symptoms
Urine specific gravity range - answer✔1.005 - 1.030
Normal Urine pH - answer✔4.6 to 8.0
The CONCEPTUS - answer✔the embryo, fetal membranes, and placenta
Normal Size Uterus of reproductive aged woman multiparous - answer✔8 cm x 5 cm x 2.5 cm
normal size of ovaries in reproductive aged woman - answer✔3 x 2 x 1 cm
Complication that may be encountered with Duncan mechanism of placental delivery -
answer✔increased bleeding due to incomplete separation of placenta
Complete breech presentation - answer✔both hips + knees flexed (like cannonball dive), buttocks
presenting
most common breech presentation - answer✔complete breech
Hep B Surface antibody - answer✔The presence of anti-HBs is generally interpreted as indicating
recovery and immunity from hepatitis B virus infection.
A "positive" or "reactive" anti-HBs (or HBsAb) test result indicates that a person is protected against the
hepatitis B virus.
Hep B Surface Antigen - answer✔A "positive" or "reactive" HBsAg test result means that the person is
infected with hepatitis B.
, ©THEBRIGHT EXAM SOLUTIONS
11/05/2024 12:06 PM
Will be present in acute active infection AND ALSO in chronic carrier states
Activin - answer✔polypeptide hormone produced by the ovaries that stimulates FSH production
Inhibin B - answer✔polypeptide hormone that inhibits FSH production
it is a MAJOR ovarian peptide hormone that rises and falls in 1st half of follicular phase, peaks midcycle,
and falls to lowest level in luteal phase. Forms negative feedback loop (inhibits) to fine tune pituitary
FSH regulation
Follistatin - answer✔binds with activin hormone to deactivate it, thus inhibiting FSH production
Treatment for Partially Expelled IUC for woman who would like to continue with an IUC -
answer✔Remove IUC. Place new one at same visit. Start Doxycycline for 5-7 days to prevent infection.
partially expulsed IUC should be removed!
HIV 1 P-24 antigen test - answer✔Detects HIV antigen as early as 2-6 weeks post-infection and declines
as HIV antibodies develop.
HIV antibody detectability - answer✔Detectable in 95% of individuals 6 months post-infection
Vaginal pH in normal reproductive aged woman - answer✔acidic, less than 4.5 pH
Management of patient with intrauterine pregnancy with a copper IUC in place - answer✔IUC must be
removed promptly regardless of her plans for her pregnancy.
REMOVAL reduces risk of spontaneous abortion. Leaving in place increases risk for spontaneous septic
abortion and preterm delivery.
No risk of congenital defects with copper exposure
During contractions, intervillous blood flow to the placenta... - answer✔decreases
Estrogen is released by the ovary in response to - answer✔FSH
Do combined oral contraceptives decrease risk of cervical cancer? - answer✔No.
Noncontraceptive benefits include decreased risk of benign breast disease, ovarian cancer, and
endometrial cancer
pudendal block - answer✔gets its name because a local anesthetic, such as lidocaine or chloroprocaine,
is injected into the pudendal canal where the pudendal nerve is located.
