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PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nurse) Exam Questions with Correct Detailed Answers || Already Graded A + &lt;Recent Update&gt; The symptoms of shortness of breath, rales throughout all lung fields, JVD, and peripheral edema indicate an increased preload. To increase the s...

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  • November 21, 2024
  • 121
  • 2024/2025
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PCCN (Progressive Care Certified
Nurse) Exam Questions with Correct
Detailed Answers || Already Graded A +
<Recent Update>



The symptoms of shortness of breath, rales throughout all lung fields, JVD, and
peripheral edema indicate an increased preload. To increase the stroke volume and
cardiac output, it would be best to decrease preload so the heart can pump for
efficiently.

What is another name for cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT)?

A. asynchronous pacing
B. biventricualr pacing
C. internal cardio-defibrillator (ICD)
D. left ventricular assist device (LVAD) - ANSWER ✔ B. biventricular pacing

Non-pharmacologic therapy for heart failure includes cardiac resynchronization
therapy (CRT), also known as biventricular pacing

A patient has supra ventricular tachycardia (SVT). What would be the first
intervention to slow the heart rate?

A. adenosine
B. cardioversion
C. defibrillation
D. Vagal maneuvers - ANSWER ✔ D. Vagal maneuvers

Immediate intervention for SVT is vagal maneuvers
Secondary interventions are cardioversion and adenosine
defibrillation is not indicated for SVT

,Primary interventions for a patient experiencing heart failure include diuretics..
The preferred diuretics are which of the following?

A. Bumex (bumetanide) and lasix (furosemide)
B. hydrochlorothiazide
C. lozol (indapamide)
D. zaroxalyn (metolazone) - ANSWER ✔ A. Bumex (bumetanide) and lasix
(furosemide)

Loop diuretics like lasix and bumex are the 2 most preferred diuretics for heart
failure treatment

Treatment for managing low cardiac output state (LCOS) would include which of
the following?

A. Diuretics
B. Positive pressure ventilation
C. vasoconstrictor agents
D. vasodilator agents - ANSWER ✔ D. vasodilator agents

in low cardiac output state (LCOS), the goals are to optimize preload, optimize
contractility, and decrease after load. Interventions to improve blood flow include
volume challenge, inotropic agents, vasodilators, and beta blockers.

A student is assigned to you. She notices bruising of the patient's flaks from the
last rib to the top of the hip. You explain to her that this is known as which of the
following?

A. Cullen's sign
B. Grey Turner's sign
C. Monroe effect
D. Whipple's sign - ANSWER ✔ B. Grey Turner's sign

Grey Turner's sign refers to bruising of the patient's flanks, the part of the body
between the last rib and the top of the hip. This would be a positive sign for the
presence of pancreatitis

, Mr. Cain is admitted to you in the middle of the night. His assessment includes
tachycardia, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. he has a history of an
emergent appendectomy three months ago. Based on this assessment, you might
expect that this patient has developed which of the following?

A. ileus
B. intestinal ischemia
C. intestinal obstruction
D. intestinal perforation - ANSWER ✔ D. intestinal perforation

An intestinal perforation is a catastrophic event that can occur in the large or small
intestine. It is a leakage of intestinal contents into the peritoneum. The most
common cause is appendicitis. A hallmark of symptoms includes abdominal
guarding, tenderness, and rigidity

What is the most effective management for an intestinal perforation?

A. antibiotics
B. blood transfusion
C. surgical repair of the perforation
D. volume replacement - ANSWER ✔ C. surgical repair of the perforation

All the interventions mentioned could be part of the treatment of an intestinal
perforation. The most effective Eans to intervene is to surgically remove or repair
the area of perforation and then provide antibiotics and supportive care

Mr. Knox has a history of alcohol abuse. he is well known to you as a frequent
admission. His wife is concerned that Mr. Knox is very sleepy but when awakened
is becoming more combative with his family and caregivers. You explain that this
is which stage of hepatic encephalopathy?

A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4 - ANSWER ✔ C. stage 3

Stage 3 of hepatic encephalopathy is identified by combative, sedate, but arousable
behavior. Stage 4 is comatose

, GI hemorrhage includes all of the following except:

A. esophageal varices
B. GERD
C. mallory weiss tear
D. Peptic ulcer disease - ANSWER ✔ B. GERD

GERD is not an imminent cause of a GI hemorrhage as are the other diseases.
GERD can cause irritation and erosion of the GI tract and over time become one of
the other more active causes of hemorrhage

The established treatment for a patient experiencing a GI hemorrhage include all
of the following except:

A. epinephrine
B. histamine blockers
C. octreotide
D. sucralfate - ANSWER ✔ A. epinephrine

Epinephrine is a sympathomimetic drug and would not be indicated in the
treatment of a GI bleed. Histamine blockers inhibit acid production in the GI tract.
Octreotide is a newer synthetic analogue of the peptide hormone somatostatin (SS).
Like SS, octreotide suppresses secretion of pituitary growth hormone (GH) and
thyrotropin. it also decreases release of a variety of pancreatic islet cell hormones
including insulin, glucagon, and vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

Bill is a 35 year old obese man. He is admitted to the nursing unit with symptoms
of heartburn and chest pain radiating to his neck, jaw, and abdomen. He states that
is pain is worse with stooping, leaning forward, and lying down. His BP is 165/90,
HR 98, RR 22, and T 98.4. What do you suspect will be the patient's diagnosis?

A. appendicitis
B. GERD
C. IBS
D. stable angina - ANSWER ✔ B. GERD

The symptoms of GERD include chest pain radiating to the neck, jaw, arms, and
abdomen; heartburn, with symptoms worsening with the position changes of
stooping, lying down, and learning forward

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