The clinician has instructed Sirius, a 23-year-old patient with low back
strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.
Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when
teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
A. "You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your
pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI)
disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage."
B. "You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your
pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication."
C. "You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you
will not need to take narcotics to control your pain."
D. "It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase
absorption." - ANS ✓A. "You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in
managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in
gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage."
Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated
disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with
suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or
symptom of cauda equina compression?
A. Gastrocnemius weakness
B. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
C. Numbness in the lateral foot
D. Saddle area anesthesia - ANS ✓D. Saddle area anesthesia
Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of
the client with a herniated disc?
DUNPHY MUS
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A. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but
should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
B. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for
at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
C. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for
surgical intervention.
D. Most disc hernias require opioids for long term pain relief. - ANS ✓C.
Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical
intervention.
John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after
hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then
being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a
pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.
The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most
appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
A. Valgus stress test
B. McMurray circumduction test
C. Lachman test
D. Varus stress test - ANS ✓B. McMurray circumduction test
The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test
for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is
placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee
flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to
an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will
perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:
A. Apprehension sign
B. Bulge sign
C. Thumb sign
D. Lachman sign - ANS ✓A. Apprehension sign
The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with
an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The
DUNPHY MUS
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