EOR 119 exam Women's health Questions With 100% Correct Answers|72 Pages
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A 40 year-old female presents with a 1.5 cm well-circumscribed mass noted on mammography in the right upper,
outer quadrant. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate and should be done next?
A. Fine needle aspiration
B. BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genetic testing
C. Serum CA-125
D. Radiatio...
EOR 119 exam Women's health
A 40 year-old female presents with a 1.5 cm well-circumscribed mass noted on
mammography in the right upper,
outer quadrant. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate and
should be done next?
A. Fine needle aspiration
B. BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genetic testing
C. Serum CA-125
D. Radiation therapy - ✔ ✔ (c) A. Fine needle aspiration is fairly accurate,
easily performed, and has minimal morbidity.
(u) B. Although BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genetic tests are used in the risk
assessment for possible breast and ovarian
cancer, it would not replace the need to perform a more definitive evaluation
of an identified breast mass.
(u) C. Serum CA-125 is a tumor marker for ovarian, not breast, cancer.
(u) D. Radiation therapy is only indicated after a diagnosis of breast cancer is
proven and may be used as adjunctive
therapy.
A 40 year-old female presents with a Pap smear abnormality revealing atypical
glandular cells (AGUS). What is the
most appropriate intervention?
A. HPV DNA testing
B. Colposcopy with endometrial curretage(ECC)
C. Repeat Pap smear in 3 months
,D. Colposcopy and endometrial sampling - ✔ ✔ (u) A. HPV DNA testing
is recommended to further evaluate patients with Pap smears with dysplasia.
(u) B. Colposcopy with ECC would be recommended in patients with ASCUS,
LGSIL, HGSIL, or squamous cell
findings on a Pap smear.
(u) C. Repeat Pap smear would be recommended in patients with ASCUS, not
AGUS, results on a Pap smear.
(c) D. Colposcopy and endometrial sampling are important to perform in
patients with AGUS Pap results because
glandular cells are associated with squamous and glandular precursor lesions
and carcinoma.
. A 21 year-old obese woman complains of menstrual irregularity since
menarche at age 17. She is 5'5" and weighs
180 pounds. Exam of her face reveals excessive hair growth as well as acne.
Her abdomen shows midline hair
growth and truncal obesity. A previous pelvic ultrasound shows many small
fluid filled ovarian cysts bilaterally. Which
of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study to make the initial
diagnosis in this patient?
A. Prolactin level
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Free testosterone
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone - ✔ ✔ (u) A. Prolactin level will not be
elevated in a patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome.
(u) B. Endometrial hyperplasia occurs secondary to anovulation, endometrial
biopsy is mandatory for follow-up
,management but is not indicated at diagnosis.
(c) C. Hyperandrogenism, as evidenced by elevated free testosterone, supports
the diagnosis of polycystic
ovarian syndrome.
(u) D. An increase of TSH is suggestive of hypothyroidism.
At the time of ovulation in a normal menstrual cycle, there is a peak in the
serum concentration of which of the
following?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Prostaglandin
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin - ✔ ✔ c) A. Luteinizing hormone is responsible for ovulation
and, therefore, peaks at that time.
(u) B. Prostaglandin is likely associated with the production of vasospasm,
vascular necrosis, and menstrual flow, not
ovulation.
(u) C. The majority of progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum and,
therefore, peaks after ovulation has
occurred.
(u) D. Prolactin is an anterior pituitary hormone, and although important in
reproduction and pregnancy, it is not
present in high levels at the time of ovulation.
At what point during a normal pregnancy should exams go from every 4 weeks
to every 3 weeks? - ✔ ✔ 28 weeks
, Colposcopic examination of the cervix of a 38 year-old woman with a high-
grade lesion on Papanicolaou (Pap) smear
yields a positive endocervical canal curettage (ECC) as its only abnormality.
Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in this patient?
A. Repeat the Pap smear in 3 months
B. Perform a conization of the cervix
C. Repeat the colposcopic examination in 3 months
D. No follow-up is required - ✔ ✔ B. A conization of the cervix is
recommended in this case because there is a substantial discrepancy between
the screening Pap test and the histologic data from biopsy and ECC.
Additionally the ECC is positive for
disease in this case.
Dysmenorrhea would most likely occur in which of the following patients?
A. A young teenager who just started having her menses
B. A woman on birth control pills
C. A marathon runner with one menses per year
D. A 35 year-old woman with regular cycles - ✔ ✔ (u) A. Young teenagers
who have just started their menses are unlikely to have dysmenorrhea, because
they
usually are anovulatory for up to one year.
(u) B. Women on birth control pills do not have dysmenorrhea because they
do not ovulate on oral contraceptives
and OCPs are used to treat dysmenorrhea.
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