NR667 | NR 667 CEA FNP CAPSTONE
PRACTICUM AND INTENSIVE EXAM |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | RATED A+ |
LATEST 2025 GUIDE | CHAMBERLAIN
Which of the following is a common physical sign of bulimia nervosa?
A. Calluses or scars on the knuckles
B. Persistent fever
C. Enlargement of the thyroid gland
D. Rapid fluctuation in weight gain or loss
- Correct Answer - A
first line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder:
A. Wellbutrin
B. Zoloft
C. Remeron
D. Buspar
- Correct Answer - B
Patients who overdose on amitriptyline should be treated with which of
the following agents?
A. Glucagon IV
B. Sodium bicarbonate IV
C. Calcium chloride IV
D. Phenylephrine PO
- Correct Answer - B
,Treatment for extrapyramidal symptoms should include which of the
following?
A. Discontinuing use of diphenhydramine
B. Increasing the dose of the typical antipsychotic
C. Discontinuing use of Cogentin
D. Switching to an atypical antipsychotic from a typical antipsychotic
- Correct Answer - D
The 32-year-old female patient newly diagnosed with depression is likely
to be started on which of the following agents with the fewest risks of
extrapyramidal symptoms?
A. Atypical antipsychotics
B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
- Correct Answer - C
Which of the following need to be assessed when determining if a
patient is a risk of self-harm or harm to others?
A. Physical examination
B. Means to commit the harm to self or others
C. Social history
D. Medical history
- Correct Answer - B
Which of the following represent precipitating factors for excited
delirium?
,A. Lopressor use
B. LSD use
C. Cigar smoking
D. Amitriptyline use
- Correct Answer - B
A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7
complains of midcycle spotting. She has not missed any doses and uses
no other medication. Which of the following is appropriate?
A. Double dosing for 2 days
B. Providing reassurance
C. Modifying use
D. Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35
- Correct Answer - B
A male presents with a painless penile lesion which has been present for
4 weeks. There is no urethral discharge. He is sexually active with
multiple partners and does not use a condom. The initial diagnosis is:
A. Primary syphilis
B. Herpes simplex type 2
C. Lichen planus
D. Chancroid
- Correct Answer - A
In treating a pregnant female with migraine headaches, which of the
following drugs would be contraindicated?
A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
, B. Frovatriptan (Frova)
C. Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex)
D. Ergotamine tartrate (Migergot)
- Correct Answer - D
A patient is 28 weeks pregnant and presents with a single episode of
vaginal bleeding. Prenatal progress is normal, and the patient denies
pain, vaginal itching, or discharge. Which of the following is the most
appropriate to determine a diagnosis?
A. non-stress test
B. Nitrazine test
C. Ultrasound
D. Bimanual cervical examination
- Correct Answer - C
Which of the following tests is the most effective in differentiating
between solid and cystic breast lesions?
A. Screening mammography
B. Fine needle aspiration
C. Ultrasonography
D. Xeromammographic
- Correct Answer - C
A pap smear report for a 24-year-old indicates atypical squamous cells
of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The patient's previous Pap
smears were normal. The nurse practitioner should next:
A. Have the patient return for a Pap smear in 1 year
B. Repeat the Pap smear in 1 month
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