(100%) Pass
1. While performing an AUG during a venous Doppler, you notice a change of
color from blue to red that lasts 4 seconds. This is most likely caused by:
A. DVT
B. venous reflux
C. HTN
D. none of the above: B
Making sure you're scale is not inverted, the blue should indicate flow away from the
transducer, which is NL venous flow. If flow is red, that means signal goes toward
the transducer.
2. While scanning the popliteal area, you notice a round, anechoic structure.
This is most likely a:
A. thrombus
B. Baker's cyst
C. aneurysm
D. edema: B
3. The NL renal artery waveform is:
A. low resistance
B. high resistance
C. triphasic
D. biphasic: A
It's going to have forward (antegrade) flow throughout the entire cardiac cycle and
a good amount of diastolic flow. It is also monophasic.
4. This spectral waveform from the distal ICA suggests:
A. ICA stenosis
B. ECA stenosis
C. brain death
D. occlusion of the proximal ICA: D
5. In a patient w/ portal HTN, you notice a network of varices on the ABD wall.
This is known as:
A. caput medusa
B. azygos vein
,C. hemiazygos vein
D. gastric varices: A
6. A common cause of varicose veins is:
A. muscle hypertrophy
B. valvular incompetence
, C. intimal thickening
D. arterial thrombus: B
7. A patient w/ mild claudication has a PVR. The ankle-brachial index is 1.09.
What should you do next?
A. discharge
B. perform a stress test
C. reboot the machine
D. go on a break: B
8. How do you calculate an ABI?
A. ankle BP multiplied by arm BP
B. ankle BP divided by arm BP
C. arm BP divided by ankle BP
D. ankle BP subtracted by arm BP: B
9. Your patient has erythema and edema along his anterior tibial regions. This
is most likely:
A. venous ulcer
B. varicose veins
C. thrombophlebitis
D. cellulitis: D
Cellulitis usually appears as edema and redness of the skin.
10. How can you acquire the specificity of a diagnostic exam?
A. number of true positives + false negatives
B. number of true positives / all positive diagnoses
C. number of true negatives / all negative diagnoses
D. none of the above: C
11. A 21-year-old male experiences cramps in his gastrocnemius after leg
presses. His ankle pressures are NL at rest, but decrease after exercise. This
is most likely:
A. SFA occlusion
B. popliteal stenosis
C. popliteal entrapment
D. compartment syndrome: C
Femoral artery occlusion would be uncommon in a 21-year-old. Popliteal steno-
sis would also not be likely in such a young patient. Compartment syndrome is
increased pressures in a muscle compartment usually caused by an injury like a
fracture.