Med-Surg Module 4, Exam 5 questions and answers with well explained Rationales 2025
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Comprehensive Study Guide for Med-Surg Exam 5: Master Module 4 (Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Renal, Gastrointestinal & Neurological Disorders)
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Med-Surg Module 4, Exam 5 questions and answers with well
explained Rationales 2025
Graded A + guaranteed for success
Question 1
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following findings would
indicate that the patient may be experiencing digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Increased urine output
D. Hypertension
Answer: A. Bradycardia
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity often presents with bradycardia (a slow heart rate). Other signs of digoxin toxicity can
include nausea, vomiting, confusion, and visual disturbances. Hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) may increase
the risk of digoxin toxicity, but it is not a direct symptom. Increased urine output and hypertension are not
typically associated with digoxin toxicity.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had a total thyroidectomy. Which of the following signs would indicate the
patient is experiencing hypocalcemia?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth
D. Constipation
,@Main med surg mod 4 exam5 confidential Lincoln tech.
Answer: C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth
Rationale: Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) often manifests as numbness and tingling around the mouth,
fingers, and toes, as well as muscle cramps or tetany. Bradycardia and constipation are not typical symptoms of
hypocalcemia. Muscle weakness can occur but is not as specific as the characteristic numbness and tingling.
Question 3
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the
following oxygen delivery systems is most appropriate for this patient to avoid CO2 retention?
A. Non-rebreather mask
B. Simple face mask
C. Nasal cannula
D. Venturi mask
Answer: D. Venturi mask
Rationale: The Venturi mask is most appropriate for patients with COPD because it delivers a precise
concentration of oxygen, reducing the risk of CO2 retention. Non-rebreather and simple face masks provide
higher and less controlled oxygen concentrations, which could suppress the patient's drive to breathe. A nasal
cannula is less precise in delivering specific oxygen concentrations.
Question 4
Which of the following interventions should be included in the care plan for a patient with Crohn's disease during
an acute exacerbation?
A. Encourage a high-fiber diet
B. Administer antidiarrheal medications as prescribed
C. Encourage strenuous exercise
D. Apply heat packs to the abdomen
Answer: B. Administer antidiarrheal medications as prescribed
,@Main med surg mod 4 exam5 confidential Lincoln tech.
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, antidiarrheal medications can help manage
symptoms. A high-fiber diet is usually not recommended during exacerbations as it can irritate the bowel.
Strenuous exercise is generally not advised due to the risk of worsening symptoms. Heat packs may provide
comfort but are not a primary intervention for managing the disease.
Question 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who has had a stroke. Which of the following instructions
should be included to prevent aspiration during meals?
A. Tilt the head backward when swallowing
B. Use a straw to drink liquids
C. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth
D. Drink thin liquids quickly
Answer: C. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth
Rationale: Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth can help the patient manage and swallow food more
effectively, reducing the risk of aspiration. Tilting the head backward can increase the risk of aspiration. Using a
straw and drinking thin liquids quickly are not recommended as they can also increase the risk of aspiration.
Question 6
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following lab
results would the nurse expect to find?
A. Serum pH of 7.45
B. Blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL
C. Serum bicarbonate level of 22 mEq/L
D. Serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
Answer: D. Serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
, @Main med surg mod 4 exam5 confidential Lincoln tech.
Rationale: In DKA, hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) is often observed due to the shift of potassium from
inside the cells to the bloodstream as a result of acidosis. A serum pH of 7.45 is normal, while in DKA, it would
be lower (acidic). Blood glucose levels are typically elevated (much higher than 60 mg/dL), and serum
bicarbonate levels are usually low, not within the normal range (22 mEq/L).
Question 7
Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis?
A. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed
B. Encourage oral fluid intake
C. Apply compression stockings
D. Restrict sodium intake
Answer: A. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed
Rationale: The priority intervention in a hypertensive crisis is to lower the blood pressure promptly and safely by
administering antihypertensive medications as prescribed. Encouraging oral fluid intake, applying compression
stockings, and restricting sodium intake are important but secondary interventions in this emergency situation.
Question 8
A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following findings is
most indicative of PE?
A. Sudden onset of dyspnea
B. Gradual onset of chest pain
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
Answer: A. Sudden onset of dyspnea
Rationale: The sudden onset of dyspnea (difficulty breathing) is a classic sign of pulmonary embolism. Chest pain
associated with PE is typically sudden and sharp, not gradual. Bradycardia is less common; tachycardia (fast heart
rate) is more typical. Hypotension may occur but is not as immediately indicative as sudden dyspnea.
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