100% satisfaction guarantee Immediately available after payment Both online and in PDF No strings attached
Previously searched by you
HFMA CRCR CERTIFIED REVENUE CYCLE REPRESENTATIVE EXAM 2025 | ACCURATE CURRENTLY TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE$22.99
HFMA CRCR CERTIFIED REVENUE CYCLE REPRESENTATIVE EXAM 2025 | ACCURATE CURRENTLY TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE
12 views 0 purchase
Course
HFMA CRCR
Institution
HFMA CRCR
HFMA CRCR CERTIFIED REVENUE CYCLE
REPRESENTATIVE EXAM 2025 | ACCURATE CURRENTLY
TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES AND A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE
HFMA CRCR CERTIFIED REVENUE CYCLE
REPRESENTATIVE EXAM 2025 | ACCURATE CURRENTLY
TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES AND A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE
What is a recurring or series registration?
A) Registering multiple patients at once
B) Creating one registration record for multiple days of service
C) Registering a patient for multiple services simultaneously
D) Creating separate records for each day of service
Rationale:
A recurring or series registration involves creating a single registration record that covers
multiple days of service for a patient. This approach streamlines the registration process and
ensures consistency across multiple service days. The other options either involve multiple
patients or creating separate records, which do not align with the definition of a recurring or
series registration.
What are nonemergency patients who come for service without prior notification to the provider
called?
A) Walk-in patients
B) Unscheduled patients
C) Scheduled patients
D) Emergency patients
Rationale:
Unscheduled patients refer to individuals who seek services without prior appointment or
notification. They do not fit into the categories of walk-ins or emergencies specifically, making
"unscheduled patients" the most accurate term. The other options either imply some level of
scheduling or the nature of the visit being an emergency, which does not apply here.
Which of the following statements apply to the observation patient type?
A) It requires full inpatient admission
B) It is used to evaluate the need for an inpatient admission
C) It is only for short-term treatments
D) It does not require any specific documentation
Rationale:
Observation status is utilized to assess whether a patient requires full inpatient admission. It
allows healthcare providers to monitor and evaluate the patient's condition before deciding on the
appropriate level of care. The other options are either inaccurate or incomplete descriptions of
the observation patient type.
1|Page
,Which services are hospice programs required to provide around the clock to patients?
A) Social services
B) Physician, Nursing, Pharmacy
C) Dietary services
D) Physical therapy
Rationale:
Hospice programs must provide physician, nursing, and pharmacy services around the clock to
ensure comprehensive care for patients in need. These core services address the medical and
medication needs of hospice patients. The other options, while beneficial, are not mandated as
essential around-the-clock services.
Scheduler instructions are used to prompt the scheduler to do what?
A) Confirm patient insurance
B) Complete the scheduling process correctly based on service requested
C) Verify patient identity
D) Collect payment information
Rationale:
Scheduler instructions guide the scheduler to accurately and efficiently complete the scheduling
process according to the specific services requested by the patient or provider. This ensures that
appointments are set up correctly and that all necessary details are considered. The other options,
while important, are not the primary purpose of scheduler instructions.
The time needed to prepare the patient before service is the difference between the patient's
arrival time and which of the following?
A) Check-in time
B) Procedure time
C) Discharge time
D) Billing time
Rationale:
The time needed to prepare the patient before service is calculated by measuring the interval
between the patient's arrival and the procedure time. This preparation time is essential for
ensuring that the patient is ready for the scheduled service or procedure. The other options do not
accurately represent the relevant timeframes for preparation.
Medicare guidelines require that when a test is ordered for which a LCD or NCD exists, the
information provided on the order must include:
A) Patient's insurance details
B) Documentation of the medical necessity for the test
2|Page
,C) Physician's credentials
D) Estimated cost of the test
Rationale:
When a test is ordered under a Local Coverage Determination (LCD) or National Coverage
Determination (NCD), Medicare mandates that the order includes documentation of the
medical necessity for the test. This ensures that the service is justified and covered under
Medicare guidelines. The other options, while important, are not specifically required for
compliance with LCD or NCD guidelines.
Through what document does a hospital establish compliance standards?
A) Patient Care Guidelines
B) Financial Assistance Policy
C) Code of Conduct
D) Operational Manual
Rationale:
A Code of Conduct outlines the ethical standards and compliance requirements that govern the
behavior and operations within a hospital. It ensures that all staff adhere to established policies
and regulations. The other options, while important, do not specifically focus on establishing
overall compliance standards.
What is the purpose of the OIG work plan?
A) To manage hospital finances
B) To identify acceptable compliance programs in various provider settings
C) To train new employees
D) To develop patient care protocols
Rationale:
The Office of Inspector General (OIG) work plan is designed to outline the areas of focus for
compliance oversight, including identifying and evaluating acceptable compliance programs
across different healthcare provider settings. This helps ensure that organizations adhere to
federal regulations and standards. The other options do not accurately reflect the primary purpose
of the OIG work plan.
If a Medicare patient is admitted on Friday, what services fall within the three-day DRG window
rule?
A) Diagnostic services provided on Monday
B) Non-diagnostic services provided on Tuesday through Friday
C) Emergency services provided on Saturday
D) All services provided within the first day
Rationale:
The three-day DRG (Diagnosis-Related Group) window rule pertains to non-diagnostic
services that occur within three days of a Medicare patient's admission. In this scenario, services
3|Page
, from Tuesday through Friday fall within this window. Diagnostic services or those outside the
specified days do not align with the DRG window criteria.
What does a modifier allow a provider to do?
A) Change the billing code entirely
B) Report a specific circumstance that affected a procedure or service without changing the
code or its definition
C) Increase the reimbursement rate
D) Bundle multiple services into one code
Rationale:
A modifier is used in medical billing to indicate that a service or procedure has been altered in
some way but retains its original code and definition. This allows providers to convey additional
information about the service without changing the underlying code. The other options do not
accurately describe the function of modifiers.
If outpatient diagnostic services are provided within three days of the admission of a Medicare
beneficiary to an IPPS hospital, what must happen to these charges?
A) They must be included in the inpatient billing
B) They must be billed separately to the Part B Carrier
C) They are covered under the inpatient stay
D) They do not need to be billed
Rationale:
When outpatient diagnostic services are provided within three days of admission to an IPPS
(Inpatient Prospective Payment System) hospital, these services must be billed separately to
the Medicare Part B Carrier. This ensures proper allocation and reimbursement for services
rendered outside the inpatient stay. Including them in inpatient billing would not correctly
attribute the services.
What is the advantage of a pre-registration program?
A) Increases patient wait times
B) It reduces processing times at the time of service
C) Requires more staff
D) Limits patient information collection
Rationale:
A pre-registration program allows for the collection and verification of patient information
before the actual service is provided, thereby reducing processing times during the service
encounter. This leads to a more efficient workflow and improved patient experience. The other
options either present disadvantages or inaccuracies regarding the benefits of pre-registration.
What data is required to establish a new MPI (Master Patient Index) entry?
4|Page
The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:
Guaranteed quality through customer reviews
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
Quick and easy check-out
You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Focus on what matters
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
Frequently asked questions
What do I get when I buy this document?
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Who am I buying these notes from?
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller DrMedinaReed. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
Will I be stuck with a subscription?
No, you only buy these notes for $22.99. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.
