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2024/25 EXAM 2 CCS |2024 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS /GET IT 100% ACCURATE|ALREADY GRADED A+

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2024/25 EXAM 2 CCS |2024 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS /GET IT 100% ACCURATE|ALREADY GRADED A+ Assign code(s) for the following diagnosis: Congestive heart failure due to hypertension. I10Essential (primary) hypertension I11.0Hypertensive heart disease with heart failure I5...

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  • January 20, 2025
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2024/25 EXAM 2 CCS |2024 ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS /GET IT 100%
ACCURATE|ALREADY GRADED A+

Assign code(s) for the following diagnosis: Congestive heart failure due to

hypertension.

I10Essential (primary) hypertension

I11.0Hypertensive heart disease with heart failure

I50.9Heart failure, unspecified

I50.23Acute on chronic systolic (congestive) heart failure



a. I10, I50.9

b. I11.0

c. I50.23, I10

d. I11.0, I50.9 - ✔✔Correct Answer: D

Heart failure is assigned a combination code when a causal relationship is stated

(due to hypertension) or implied (hypertensive). Use an additional code to

identify the type of heart failure in those patients with heart failure (CMS

2020a, Section I.C.9.a.1, 46-47).
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©JOSHCLAY 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2025.

,A patient is seen for evaluation of a right orbital roof fracture. How should this

be coded?

S02.121AFracture of orbital roof, right side, initial encounter for closed fracture

S02.31XAFracture of orbital floor, right side, initial encounter for closed fracture

S02.92XAUnspecified fracture of facial bones, initial encounter for closed

fracture

S02.91XAUnspecified fracture of skull, initial encounter for closed fracture



a. S02.121A

b. S02.31XA

c. S02.92XA

d. S02.91XA - ✔✔Correct Answer: A

Alphabetic Index for fracture, traumatic; orbit, orbital; roof guides the coder to

S02.12. Evaluation of a fracture is an example of active treatment which is

reported with 7th character "A" (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2020, 580-584).

Patient presents in the ER with thrombosis of a loop PTFE hemodialysis fistula

without mechanical complications. The physician performed a percutaneous

thrombectomy of the left brachial vein. Assign a facility code for this outpatient

procedure.

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©JOSHCLAY 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2025.

,05CA3ZZExtirpation of matter from left brachial vein, percutaneous approach

36904Percutaneous transluminal mechanical thrombectomy and/or infusion for

thrombolysis, dialysis circuit, any method, including all imaging and radiological

supervision and interpretation, diagnostic angiography, fluoroscopic guidance,

catheter placement(s), and intraprocedural pharmacological thrombolytic

injection(s)

36832Revision, open, arteriovenous fistula; without thrombectomy, autogenous

or nonautogenous dialysis graft (separate procedure)

37184Primary percutaneous transluminal mechanical thrombectomy,

noncoronary, arterial or arterial bypass graft, including fluoroscopic guidance

and intrapro - ✔✔Correct Answer: B

This episode of care occurs in the ER which is an outpatient setting, therefore, a

CPT code should be used. CPT code 36904 correctly identifies the thrombectomy

procedure because it specifies the site of the thrombectomy as "dialysis circuit."

36904 includes imaging guidance, diagnostic angiography, catheter placement,

and intraprocedural pharmacological thrombolytic injections" (Kirchoff 2009,

203).

Patient admitted for laparoscopic repair of right diaphragmatic hernia. Assign

the ICD-10-PCS procedure code for this surgery.

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©JOSHCLAY 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2025.

, 0BQT4ZZRepair diaphragm, percutaneous endoscopic approach

0BQT3ZZRepair diaphragm, percutaneous approach

0WQF4ZZRepair abdominal wall, percutaneous endoscopic approach

0BQT0ZZRepair diaphragm, open approach



a. 0BQT4ZZ

b. 0BQT3ZZ

c. 0WQF4ZZ

d. 0BQT0ZZ - ✔✔Correct Answer: A

ICD-10-PCS code 0BQT4ZZ is the correct code based on the values for the body

part and approach. The correct body part is diaphragm and laparoscopy is

reported as a percutaneous endoscopic method of approach (Leon-Chisen 2020,

250-251).

A 23-year-old female is admitted for vaginal bleeding following a miscarriage

two weeks prior to this admission. She is afebrile at this time and is treated with

an aspiration dilation and curettage. Products of conception are found. Which of

the following should be the principal diagnosis?

a. O03.1, Delayed or excessive hemorrhage following incomplete spontaneous

abortion

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©JOSHCLAY 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2025.

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