Exam (elaborations)

SANS 401 EXAM 2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW VERSION!! |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS

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SANS 401 EXAM 2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS
|FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND
SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW
VERSION!! |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS

What is a characteristic of the VPN packets shown in the tcpdump capture below?

Payload data is encrypted and/or authenticated - The Time-To-Live value is authenticated - SPI
and Sequence numbers are encrypted - Source IP addresses are authenticated

Payload data is encrypted and/or authenticated

( Explanation )
The tcpdump output is a packet capture of ESP traffic going over the network. With ESP,
payload data (protocol header above layer 3 and its data) may be encrypted, authenticated,
or both. The AH protocol authenticates certain fields in the IPv4 header, such as the source
and destination IP addresses. AH does not authenticate the TTL value because that changes as
the packets go through routers. ESP does not authenticate any fields in the IPv4 header.
Neither ESP nor AH encrypt the Security Parameters Index (SPI) or Sequence numbers.

Which of the following is best described as "a collection of data that documents the
configuration and running state of a system at a given point in time"?

Backup - System snapshot - Known good - Default state

System snapshot

( Explanation )
Of all the items listed, a system snapshot is the most correct. A backup does not give you any
information about the running state of the machine. The default state just tells you what the
system was like when it was first put online, not at any given arbitrary point. Finally, a known

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,good is a general term referring to a system, file, or application that is known to not be
infected with malware or to be corrupted.

What is the command-line tool for Windows XP and later that allows administrators the ability
to get or set configuration data for a very wide variety of computer and user account settings?

CONFIG.EXE - IPCONFIG.EXE - WMIC.EXE - NETSTAT.EXE

WMIC.EXE

( Explanation )
Windows XP/2003 and later includes a command-line tool named WMIC.EXE that can be used
to get or set configuration data for a very wide variety of settings. If you are an auditor, you
must get to know this tool.

Which of the following formulas would be used by a risk practitioner with a goal of determining
how much exploitation of a threat is expected to cost over the period of one year?

Annualized Exposure Factor x Rate of Occurrence - Single Loss Value x Rate of Occurrence -
Single Loss Expectancy x Monthly Rate of Occurrence x 12 - Asset Value x Annualized Exposure
Factor - Single Loss Expectancy x Annualized Rate of Occurrence

Single Loss Expectancy x Annualized Rate of Occurrence

( Explanation )
The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) is the annual expected financial loss from a threat. The
formula is:
Annual Loss Expectancy = Single Loss Expectancy x Annualize Rate of Occurance

In WPA3 what does simultaneous authentication of equals provide for connection security?

Enhanced encryption complexity - Passive capture of logon packets - Protection from key reuse -
Defense from denial of service attacks

Protection from key reuse

( Explanation )
Simultaneous authentication of equals is an enhancement to WPA3 over previous versions of
wireless protocols in that it generates unique, per client keys that protect against network
based replay attacks.

2|Page

,Incident responders are having a difficult time figuring out what happened to a compromised IIS
server due to altered and deleted logs. Which of the following should be done to mitigate the
threat of log tampering in the future?

Limit the permissions of the IIS server processes - Monitor the logs daily for signs of tampering -
Set the logs on the IIS server to read-only - Deploy centralized logging to preserve the logs

Deploy centralized logging to preserve the logs

( Explanation )
The best way to ensure the integrity of the logs is to get them off the machine likely to be
compromised at regular intervals.

A company has just begun to implement the CIS Critical Security Controls and HR approaches
the CISO with a request to add employee background checks to the project plan. For which
reason below should the CISO determine HR's request to be out of scope?

Background checks require too many sub-controls to be efficient - Background checks cannot be
automated - Background checks are implemented only as an advanced critical security control -
Background checks are an administrative control

Background checks are an administrative control

( Explanation )
CIS Critical Security Controls are by definition, technical in nature and exclude physical
security and administrative controls. An employee background check is an administrative
control.

What is the preferred method of validating input data to provide additional security?

Blacklisting on the server - Blacklisting on the client - Whitelisting on the client - Whitelisting on
the server

Whitelisting on the server

( Explanation )
The preferred way of validating input is to whitelist, or to allow only known good values.
Input checking should not be limited to form input and the query string. Clients have the
ability to manipulate data in the HTTP headers and cookie values as well. Validation can be
done using scripts on the client side, but this really should be used only to make the web

3|Page

, application more usable. Client-side validation provides no additional security because a
malicious user can modify or bypass any scripting or validation done on the client; all data
must be validated on the server as well.
Blacklists have a higher chance of treating bad input as safe, or corrupting valid input.
Another challenge with blacklisting is the variety of ways a character can be encoded when
sent to a web application. In different situations, the web server or application software
might convert hexadecimal characters, Unicode characters, and URL-encoded characters into
a form that could cause problems when processed by the application.

What type of software or device is positioned out-of-band on the network infrastructure and is
responsible for monitoring traffic and reporting its results to an administrator, but is not
designed to automatically take action or prevent a detected exploit from taking over a system?

Intrusion Detection System - Antivirus - Deep Packet Inspection - Firewall

Intrusion Detection System

( Explanation )
Intrusion Detection is the process of monitoring activity on a host or network and alerting on
attempted or successful security breach.

Which of the following is a trait of persistent cookies?

They are the preferred mechanism to track web session state - Additional authentication could
be required to establish a session - They can create privacy concerns - They are stored in
memory

They can create privacy concerns

( Explanation )
Persistent cookies can create privacy concerns. Persistent cookies are stored on the disk.
Because of this they create security concerns when used to track session state and additional
authentication is required to establish a session.

From the choices below, which is the correct term used for the last portion of an Internet
Protocol (IP) address?

The network identifier (NET_ID)The vendor code - The unique number assigned by the vendor -
The host identifier (HOST_ID)

4|Page

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Exam (elaborations)

SANS 401 EXAM 2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW VERSION!! |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS

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