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MN 551 Midterm Exam (5 Versions) / MN551 Midterm Exam: Kaplan University |Newest-2020, 100% Correct| $30.49   Add to cart

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MN 551 Midterm Exam (5 Versions) / MN551 Midterm Exam: Kaplan University |Newest-2020, 100% Correct|

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MN 551 Midterm Exam (5 Versions) / MN551 Midterm Exam: Kaplan University |Newest-2020, 100% Correct|

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  • August 7, 2020
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  • 2020/2021
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By: kedrinthomas • 3 year ago

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MN551 Unit 5 Mid Term

Question 1.1. A student nurse practitioner asks her preceptor about the origins of different

tissues, and their cellular origins during the process of development. Which of the following

statements by the preceptor best describes the process of cell differentiation? (Points : 3)

“Cells of the hematopoietic system produce the appropriate body cells that are required at each

stage of development.”

“A single stem cell differentiates into approximately 200 different types of cells.”

“A fertilized ovum undergoes a series of divisions, yielding many different cell types.”

“Cells differentiate into necessary body cells, peaking after conception, and ceasing near the

time of birth.”

Question 2.2. A 77-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of stomach cancer has been found to

have metastases in his liver. The patient and his family are surprised at this turn of events,

stating that they don't see how he could have developed cancer in his liver. Which of the

following facts would underlie the reply that the care team provides? (Points : 3)

The parenchymal tissue of the liver is particularly susceptible to secondary malignancies.

The portal circulatory system brings venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract into the liver.

Hepatic stromal tissue shares characteristics with cancerous cells, including lack of anchorage

dependence.

The proximity of the liver to the stomach allows for direct spread of cancerous cells due to a

lack of contact inhibition.

,Question 3.3. The NP is teaching a group of older adults about the value of including foods

containing antioxidants in their diet. Which of the following statements best captures the

rationale underlying the NPs advice?(Points : 3)

Antioxidants inhibit the actions of reactive oxygen species (ROS).

Antioxidants prevent the formation of superoxide dismutase.

Antioxidants react nonspecifically with molecules.

Antioxidants prevent the occurrence of cell dysplasia.

Question 4.4. The nurse practitioner is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis,

and he notes that the patient's sclerae are jaundiced. The nurse practitioner recalls that jaundice

is caused by excess accumulation of bilirubin, a pigment that can accumulate in which part of

the cell? (Points : 3)

Nucleus

Cytoplasm

Golgi apparatus

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

Question 5.5. Which of the following patients of a primary care nurse practitioner would not

require extra screening for cancer? (Points : 3)

A 51-year-old woman whose grandmother died of breast cancer

A 48-year-old man who takes immunosuppressant drugs following a kidney transplant

A 50-year-old male who is obese and has a low-fiber, high-fat diet

,A 38-year-old female with Down syndrome and congenital scoliosis

Question 6.6. A new older female patient at a long-term care facility has a diagnosis of type 1

neurofibromatosis (NF-1). As part of the intake assessment protocol for the facility, the clinical

educator is teaching the care staff about the diagnosis. Which of the following statements most

accurately conveys an aspect of neurofibromatosis? (Points : 3)

“The neurofibroma lesions are unsightly for the patient, but they are not painful.

“Her diagnosis puts her at higher risk of developing a malignant neoplasm.”

“She is living with an example of an autosomal recessive disorder.”

“The patient is likely to be photosensitive as a result of the disease.”

Question 7.7. A child possesses a trait that is the result of the interaction of two different genes,

neither of which could have produced the trait independently. Which of the following

explanations best captures the genetic explanation for this? (Points : 3)

The trait is an expression of multiple alleles.

Epistasis has dictated the phenotypic outcome.

The phenomenon is an example of polygenic inheritance.

The outcome is the result of the interaction between collaborative genes.

Question 8.8. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of cell injury

due to impaired calcium homeostasis? (Points : 3)

Normal intracellular calcium ion levels are higher than extracellular levels.

Ischemia and certain toxins cause a decrease in cytosolic calcium.

, Injured cells tend to accumulate calcium.

Low calcium levels cause an activation of damaging enzymes.

Question 9.9. A group of researchers has identified that the prevalence of two particular genetic

disorders share a statistical correlation. Which of the following statements best conveys the

genetic rationale for this situation? (Points : 3)

There is likely a cause-and-effect relationship between the two genes responsible.

The chromosomes containing each gene are likely closely situated.

The genes causing each disorder are likely in the same section of the same chromosome.

The disorders likely share the same locus.

Question 10.10. A male patient of a nurse practitioner has an autosomal dominant disorder. The

patient and his partner are considering starting a family. Which of the patient's following

statements indicates the patient has an adequate understanding of the genetic basis of this health

problem? (Points : 3)

“I know there's no way of accurately determining the chance that my child will inherit the

disease.”

“My children who don't have the disease still run the risk of passing it on to their children.”

“I know that new genetic mutations won't occur between generations.”

“I know that a single mutant allele is to blame for the health problem.”

Question 11.11. As part of an orientation to a genetic counseling practice, a group of medical

students is differentiating between autosomal recessive disorders and autosomal dominant

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