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NURS 6550 Midterm Exam (Latest Versions, 100 Q & A) / NURS 6550N Midterm Exam , Correct and Verified Q & A, NURS 6550-Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings I, Walden University. CA$36.89   Add to cart

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NURS 6550 Midterm Exam (Latest Versions, 100 Q & A) / NURS 6550N Midterm Exam , Correct and Verified Q & A, NURS 6550-Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings I, Walden University.

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NURS 6550 Midterm Exam (Latest Versions, 100 Q & A) / NURS 6550N Midterm Exam , Correct and Verified Q & A, NURS 6550-Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings I, Walden University.

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  • April 28, 2023
  • September 5, 2023
  • 58
  • 2023/2024
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By: bishoppatrick545 • 10 months ago

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NURS 6550 Midterm Exam
 Latest multiple Versions
 Verified Questions And Answers (100 Q & A)
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,NURS 6550 Midterm Exam, NURS 6550N Midterm Exam / Walden
University



• Question 1
1 out of 1 points

The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed,
among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is
sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the
AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n) __________ is the least
worrisome type.

Response Feedback: “A” is the correct answer. A transudate is
essentially just water and can occur as a consequence of increased
hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary vessels. It typically implies that
the some condition has produced an imbalance in colloid-hydrostatic
pressures, such as CHF or hypoalbuminemia. While it can represent a
serious problem, it may also represent a transient imbalance.
Conversely, “B” is not correct as an exudate has more protein in it and
implies a condition characterized by protein leaking from vessels, such
as a malignancy or some serious systemic stressor. “C” is not correct—a
chyliform effusion is characterized by fat and indicates a pathology
causing massive triglyceride degradation. “D” is not correct as a
hemorrhagic effusion is blood and typically means traumatic injury.

• Question 2
1 out of 1 points

Mrs. Miller is transported to the emergency department by paramedics.
She is having profound, unremitting chest pain, is diaphoretic and pale.
She has jugular venous distention and a widened pulse pressure.
Suspecting ascending aortic aneurysm, the AGACNP order which test to
confirm the diagnosis?

, Response Feedback: “D” is the correct answer. It is the most widely
used diagnostic tool as it rapidly and precisely can outline the thoracic
and abdominal aorta. “A” is not the correct answer—there are
radiographic findings that suggest thoracic aneurysm, but they need
confirmation by CT. “B” is not the correct answer as ultrasound is not
nearly as precise as a CT scan. “C” is not correct—MRI is only
indicated when the patient cannot have a contrast CT.

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points

Certain subgroups of the elderly population are at an increased risk for
rapid deterioration and long-term care placement. Which of the
following is not considered a high risk factor for long term care
placement?

Response Feedback: “A” is the correct answer; men are at higher risk
for long-term care placement than women. In addition to male gender,
other risk factors include age over 80, living alone, bowel or bladder
incontinence, history of falls, dysfunctional coping, and intellectual
impairment.

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points

A patient with anterior epistaxis has been treated with 20 minutes of
direct pressure to the cartilaginous portion of the nose. Following
pressure the patient is instructed to gently blow the nose. Expected
findings in the patient who has been successfully treated include all of
the following except a:

Response Feedback: “C” is the correct answer. If bleeding is
successfully stopped with 20 minutes of directed pressure, there will be
residual blood and clot formation. This is evacuated either by gentle

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