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TEST BANK For Huether and McCance's Understanding Pathophysiology, Canadian Edition, 2nd Edition by Kelly Power-Kean, Verified Chapters 1 - 42, Complete Newest Version

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TEST BANK For Huether and McCance's Understanding Pathophysiology, Canadian Edition, 2nd Edition by Kelly Power-Kean, Verified Chapters 1 - 42, Complete Newest Version Huether and McCance's Understanding Pathophysiology, Canadian Edition, 2nd Edition by Kelly Power-Kean, Verified Chapters 1 - 42, C...

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  • January 22, 2024
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Test Bank for Huether and McCance's Understanding
Pathophysiology, Canadian Edition,

2nd Edition by Kelly Power-Kean,

Chapter 1 - 42

,Table of Contents
PART ONE: BASIC CONCEPTS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Unit 1: The Cell
1. Cellular Biology
2. Genes and Genetic Diseases
3. Epigenetics and Disease
4. Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
5. Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
Unit 2: Mechanisms of Self-Defense
6. Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
7. Adaptive Immunity
8. Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
9. Stress and Disease
Unit 3: Cellular Proliferation: Cancer
10. Biology of Cancer
11. Cancer Epidemiology
12. Cancer in Children and Adolescents
PART TWO: BODY SYSTEMS AND DISEASES
Unit 4: The Neurologic System
13. Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
14. Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
15. Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics and Motor Function
16. Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems and Neuromuscular Junction
17. Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
Unit 5: The Endocrine System
18. Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
19. Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
Unit 6: The Hematologic System
20. Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
21. Alterations in Hematologic Function
22. Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
Unit 7: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
23. Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
24. Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
25. Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
Unit 8: The Pulmonary System
26. Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
27. Alterations of Pulmonary Function
28. Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
Unit 9: The Renal and Urologic Systems
29. Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
30. Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
31. Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children

,Unit 10: The Reproductive Systems
32. Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
33. Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
34. Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
Unit 11: The Digestive System
35. Structure and Function of the Digestive System
36. Alterations of Digestive Function
37. Alterations in Digestive Function in Children
Unit 12: The Musculoskeletal and Integumentary Systems
38. Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
39. Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
40. Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
41. Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
42. Alterations of the Integument in Children

,Chapter 01: Cellular Biology



MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA
with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student?
a. A single circular chromosome
b. A nucleus
c. Free-floating nuclear material
d. No organelles
ANS: B
The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its
nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A single circular chromosome called a
prokaryote contains free-floating nuclear material but has no organelles.

REF: p. 2

2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse
describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?
a. Metabolic absorption
b. Communication
c. Secretion
d. Respiration
ANS: D NURSINGTB.COM
The cell’s ability to absorb oxygen is referred to as respiration while its communication ability
involves maintenance of a steady dynamic state, metabolic absorption provides nutrition, and
secretion allows for the synthesizing of new substances.

REF: p. 2

3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of
the genetic information be contained?
a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosome
c. Nucleolus
d. Nucleus Cytoplasm
ANS: C
The region of the cell that contains genetic material, including a large amount of ribonucleic
acid, most of the DNA, and DNA-binding proteins, is the nucleolus, which is located within
the cell’s nucleus. Mitochondria is associated with cellular respiration, while ribosomes are
involved with protein manufacturing. Cytoplasm is a fluid filling that is a component of the
cell.

REF: p. 2




NURSINGTB.COM

,4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the
layer itself?
a. Peripheral membrane proteins
b. Integral membrane proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. Cell adhesion molecules
ANS: B
Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral
membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the
surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoprotein
marks cells and does not float.

REF: p. 7

5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?
a. Oxygen
b. Ribosomes
c. Amphipathic lipids
d. Ligands
ANS: D
Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane.

REF: p. 9

6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the
extracellular matrix would s uNp p oRr t t hIe dG
iagnBo.
siC
s ofM
metastatic cancer?
a. Decreased fibronectin U S N T
b. Increased collagen
c. Decreased elastin
d. Increased glycoproteins
ANS: A
Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing
them to travel or metastasize.

REF: p. 10

7. Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact?
a. Cell junction
b. Gap junction
c. Desmosome
d. Tight junction

ANS: A
Cell junctions hold cells together and permit molecules to pass from cell to cell.
Gap junctions allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight
junctions are associated with cellular communication.

REF: p. 11




NURSINGTB.COM

, 8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring
alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types?
a. Paracrine
b. Autocrine
c. Neurohormonal
d. Hormonal
ANS: A
Paracrine signaling involves the release of local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up,
destroyed, or immobilized, as in the case of insulin and the inhibition of the secretion of
glucagon. None of the other options involve signaling that is associated with a local chemical
mediator like insulin.

REF: p. 12

9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a:
a. solute.
b. substrate.
c. receptor.
d. ribosome.
ANS: B
Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of
the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and
any of the remaining options.

REF: p. 16
NURSINGTB.COM
10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The
athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that
the problem is result of a deficiency of:
a. GTP
b. AMP
c. ATP
d. GMP
ANS: C
When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are
involved in muscle contraction.

REF: p. 16

11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?
a. Digestion
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Citric acid cycle
ANS: D
While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is
generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP.




NURSINGTB.COM

, REF: p. 16

12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the
nurse include?
a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion
ANS: A
Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular
catabolism.

REF: p. 16

13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will
facilitate his continued muscle performance?
a. Electron-transport chain
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Anaerobic glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
ANS: C
When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part
of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative
phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats,
and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance.
NU RS IN GT B.COM
REF: p. 16

14. A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute
from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student
understood the teaching?
a. Osmosis
b. Diffusion
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Active transport
ANS: B
Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to
an area of lesser solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Osmosis is the
movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water
concentration to one of lower concentration. Hydrostatic pressure is the force of fluid against
a cell membrane. In active transport, molecules move up a concentration gradient.

REF: p. 19

15. Which description accurately describes electrolytes?
a. Small lipid-soluble molecules
b. Large protein molecules
c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP




NURSINGTB.COM

, d. Electrically charged molecules
ANS: D
Electrolytes are electrically charged molecules. They are not lipid soluble, they are not made
up of protein, and they do not play a role in ATP production.

REF: p. 18

16. A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic
pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:
a. the concentration of sodium.
b. plasma proteins.
c. hydrostatic pressure.
d. the availability of membrane transporter proteins.
ANS: B
Oncotic pressure is determined by the effect of colloids or plasma proteins. The concentration
of sodium plays a role in tonicity. Hydrostatic pressure is the force within a vessel. Membrane
transporter proteins are involved in active transport within a concentration gradient.

REF: p. 20

17. A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:
a. osmolality.
b. osmolarity.
c. osmotic pressure.
d. oncotic pressure.
ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM
Osmolality measures the number of milliosmoles per kilogram of water, or the concentration
of molecules per weight of water, while osmolarity measures the number of milliosmoles per
liter of solution, or the concentration of molecules per volume of solution. Osmotic pressure is
the amount of hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the osmotic movement of water.
Oncotic pressure is from plasma proteins, not body fluids.

REF: p. 19

18. A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes
into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the
nurse describing?
a. Hydrostatic pressure
b. Osmosis
c. Diffusion
d. Active transport
ANS: A
Blood reaching the capillary bed has a hydrostatic pressure of 25–30 mm Hg, which is
sufficient force to push water across the thin capillary membranes into the interstitial space.
Osmosis involves the movement of fluid from an area of higher concentration to an area of
lower concentration. It does not involve pressure or force. Diffusion is the passive movement
of a solute from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute
concentration. Active transport involves movement up a concentration gradient.




NURSINGTB.COM

, REF: p. 19

19. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?
a. By passive electrolyte channels
b. By coupled channels
c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
d. By diffusion
ANS: C
The transporter protein ATPase is directly related to sodium and potassium transport via
active transport. Electrolyte movements require energy and do not move passively, nor are
they transported by diffusion. Enzymes, not electrolytes, are passed via coupled channels.

REF: p. 21

20. The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an
example of which of the following types of transport?
a. Biport
b. Uniport
c. Antiport
d. Symport
ANS: D
When ions are transported in one direction, it is termed symport. There is no such term as
biport. Uniport refers to the movement of a single molecule. Antiport refers to the movement
of molecules in the opposite direction.
NURSINGTB.COM
REF: p. 19, Figure 1-22

21. During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion?
a. Endocytosis
b. Pinocytosis
c. Phagocytosis
d. Exocytosis
ANS: C
Phagocytosis (cell eating) involves the ingestion of large particles, such as bacteria, through
the formation of large vesicles. Endocytosis involves the formation of vesicles to facilitate
movement into the cell. Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which fluids and solute
molecules are ingested through the formation of small vesicles. Exocytosis occurs when
coated pits invaginate and internalize ligand-receptor complexes in coated vesicles.

REF: p. 22

22. Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions
occur. What is this cell cycle phase called?
a. G1
b. S
c. M
d. G2




NURSINGTB.COM

, ANS: C
The M phase includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions. The G1 phase includes the
period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis. The S phase includes synthesis of
DNA in the cell nucleus. The G2 phase includes RNA and protein synthesis.

REF: pp. 25-26

23. Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action
potential?
a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane
potential from negative to positive.
b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane
potential from negative to positive.
c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane
potential from positive to negative.
d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane
potential from positive to negative.
ANS: B
When the threshold is reached, the cell will continue to depolarize with no further stimulation.
The sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, causing the membrane potential to
reduce to zero and then become positive (depolarization). Sodium is involved in creating the
action potential, not potassium. The sodium gate and channel must be open, not closed. The
action potential is not affected by a change in the potassium gate.

REF: pp. 24-25

24. A cell is isolated, and electroN
phUyR olI
siS ogNyGstT
uB
di.
esCreOvM
eal that the resting membrane potential is
−70 mV. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is
K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential?
a. K+ rushing into the cell
b. Na+ rushing into the cell
c. Na+ rushing out of the cell
d. K+ rushing out of the cell
ANS: A
With voltage change, potassium rushes into, not out of, the cell. Sodium movement is not
related to this process.

REF: pp. 24-25

25. A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of:
a. platelets.
b. epidermal cells.
c. connective tissue cells.
d. fibroblast cells.
ANS: C
Different types of cells require different growth factors; for example, PDGF stimulates the
production of connective tissue cells, but not platelets, epidermal cells, or fibroblast cells.




NURSINGTB.COM

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