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EVOLVE HESI PHARM PN VERSION 2 EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS CA$25.85   Add to cart
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EVOLVE HESI PHARM PN VERSION 2 EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS

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EVOLVE HESI PHARM PN VERSION 2 EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS

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  • April 25, 2024
  • 35
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

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  • evolve hesi pharm pn
  • evolve hesi pharm
  • already graded a newest
  • evolve hesi pharm pn version 2 exam 2024 with act
  • evolve hesi pharm pn version 2

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  • EVOLVE HESI PHARM PN
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3  reviews

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By: drjohna • 6 months ago

very accurate

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By: RegisteredNurse • 6 months ago

very accurate and well detailed

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By: Dredward • 6 months ago

very accurate and well detailed

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1 | P a g e EVOLVE HESI PHARM PN VERSION 2 EXAM 2024 WITH ACTU AL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS A client who is receiving an antibiotic suddenly develops hives. The practical nurse should report that the client is most likely experiencing which type of drug response? A) Adverse response. B) Hypersensitivity reaction. C) Idiosyncratic reaction. D) Mul tiple drug interaction. B) Hypersensitivity reaction. Feedback: Hives, a symptom of a hypersensitivity reaction (B), involve an abnormal immune response and are not uncommon with the use of antibiotics. Although (A, C, and D) are unexpected pharmacologic reactions, hives represent a life -threatening allergic response and should be reported to ensure prompt intervention. The healthcare provider prescribes cycloplegic and mydriatic ophthalmic drops for a client who is having a cataract removal. What explanati on about the drug actions should the practical nurse (PN) provide the client? A) Reduces intraocular pressure. B) Relieves eye pain. C) Treats conjunctivitis. D) Dilates the pupil. D) Dilates the pupil. Feedback: Cycloplegic drugs cause ciliary paralysis, and mydriatics dilate the pupil (D), which facilitates access into the anterior chamber for removal of the lens in cataract surgery. (A, B, and C) are incorrect actions. 2 | P a g e The practical nurse (PN) is assessing a client who takes olanzapine (Zyprexa), an anti psychotic. Which side effect should the PN most likely note in this client? A) Insomnia and irritability. B) Hand tremors and tearing. C) Nausea and frontal headache. D) Weight gain and constipation. D) Weight gain and constipation. Feedback: Olanzapine (Z yprexa), an atypical antipsychotic, causes orthostatic hypotension, weight gain, and anticholinergic effects, such as constipation (D). Common anticholinergic side effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, nasal stuffiness, weight gain, difficulty urinati ng, decreased sweating, increased sensitivity to sunlight, and constipation (D). (A, B, and C) are not expected side effects of this medication. The practical nurse (PN) discusses antihypertensive drug therapy with several clients diagnosed with high blood pressure. To improve client understanding, the PN should emphasize that which medication preserves renal function in a client with diabetes? A) Verapamil (Calan). B) Captopril (Capoten). C) Clonidine (Catapres). D) Nifedipine (Procardia). B) Captopril (Ca poten). Feedback: Hypertension contributes to diabetic nephropathy, and angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as captopril (B), slow progression of renal damage for clients with diabetes by reducing blood pressure, contributing to blood suga r control by increasing the body's sensitivity to insulin, and moving glucose from the bloodstream into cells. Verapamil (A), nifedipine (D), and clonidine (C) are used the treatment of hypertension, but do not provide the same effects on blood glucose as captopril does for clients with diabetes. A client with schizophrenia has been taking clozapine (Clozaril) for several months. The practical nurse (PN) monitors the client for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). Which reason supports the PN's assessment? A) Pro longed use of antidepressant medications reduce skeletal muscle tone. B) The excess amount of norepinephrine causes an increase in blood pressure. C) The increased availability of serotonin affects mood and behavior. D) Atypical antipsychotics can deplete the brain's supply of dopamine. D) Atypical antipsychotics can deplete the brain's supply of dopamine. Feedback: The use of an atypical antipsychotic, such as clozapine, should include an assessment of musculoskeletal functioning for signs and symptoms of any EPS reaction that can occur from a lack of the brain neurotransmitter dopamine (D). (A, B, and C) do not explain the cause of EPS. 3 | P a g e A client who is transferred to the cardiac rehabilitation unit after a myocardial infarction is ready for discharge with a new prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor). The client asks, I don't have high blood pressure, so why did my healthcare provider give me this medicine? What information should the practical nurse (PN) provide? A) Anticoagulation is the most important ac tion of metoprolol. B) Beta -blockers are routinely prescribed after heart damage. C) Heart failure is prevented as a complication while healing. D) A slower heart rate reduces the heart's oxygen demand. D) A slower heart rate reduces the heart's oxygen dem and. Feedback: Lopressor, a beta -blocker, slows the heart rate and is prescribed after a myocardial infarction to reduce the heart's work load and oxygen demand (D). (A, B, and D) are incorrect. Which serum laboratory result should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for the effectiveness of lactulose (Cephulac)? A) Ammonia. B) Potassium. C) Uric acid. D) Triglycerides. A) Ammonia. Feedback: Lactulose reduces blood ammonia (A) levels to improve mental status of a client with hepatic encephalopathy resulting fr om cirrhosis or other liver problems. Changes in (B, C, and D) do not evaluate the therapeutic response of lactulose. The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) after abdominal surgery. Which finding should th e PN report to the charge nurse? A) Weight loss. B) Impaired healing. C) Bradycardia. D) Hyperkalemia. B) Impaired healing. Feedback: Glucocorticoids, such as Decadron, are used in the treatment of allergic, inflammatory, and debilitating conditions. A com mon side of exogenous corticosteroid therapy is hyperglycemia and delayed wound healing (B). (A, C, and D) are side effects not associated with the administration of Decadron. The practical nurse (PN) is reinforcing teaching for a client who is receiving d iltiazem (Cardizem), a calcium channel blocker. Which drug action should the practical nurse explain? A) Increased force of contraction. B) Decreased rate of contraction. C) Decreased peripheral resistance. D) Increased speed of conduction. 4 | P a g e B) Decreased ra te of contraction. Feedback: Calcium -channel blockers decrease cardiac contractility (inotropy), atrioventricular -node conduction (dromotropy), and heart rate (chronotropy) (B). (A, C, and D) are not pharmacotherapeutic actions for Cardizem. A client who r eceived succinylcholine (Anectine), a neuromuscular blocking agent, during a surgical procedure returns to the postoperative unit and is complaining of thirst and wants to drink something. What assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to c heck before giving oral liquids? A) Gag and swallow reflexes. B) Appetite and interest in food. C) Sensation and movement of all limbs. D) Ability to breathe deeply on command. A) Gag and swallow reflexes. Feedback: Anectine, a neuromuscular blocking agent , paralyzes musculoskeletal muscles and the gag reflex. To reduce the possibility of aspiration, the PN should confirm the return of the client's gag and swallow reflexes (A) before allowing intake of food or liquids. (B, C, and D) should be assessed but d o not have the priority of initiating oral intake post -anesthesia. A client who is comatose is admitted after an overdose of baclofen (Lioresal). What nursing action should the practical nurse (PN) implement? A) Provide continuous telemetry monitoring. B) Monitor for signs of respiratory arrest. C) Administer prescribed naloxone (Narcan). D) Keep a dose of diazepam at the bedside. B) Monitor for signs of respiratory arrest. Feedback: An overdose of baclofen (Lioresal), a centrally acting muscle relaxant, ca n cause coma and respiratory depression that requires respiratory support. Monitoring for early signs of respiratory arrest (B) is most important so immediate respiratory resuscitation can be provided. Although telemetry (A) provides close cardiac monitori ng, early recognition of respiratory arrest is indicated due to the actions of Lioresal. Narcan (C) is ineffective for baclofen overdose. (D) is not indicated. A 35 -week gestation primigravida who takes lithium (Eskalith) tells the practical nurse (PN) tha t she would like to breastfeed her infant. What information should the PN provide to the client? A) The medication does not cross the placental barrier. B) Mood swings will occur if lithium is discontinued. C) Breast milk should be discarded after each ora l dose of lithium. D) The drug is excreted in breast milk so use formula to feed the infant. D) The drug is excreted in breast milk so use formula to feed the infant. Feedback: Lithium crosses the placental barrier and is excreted in the breast milk, so th e client should formula

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