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TEST BANK FOR Textbook of Diagnostic Sonography 9th Edition by Sandra L. Hagen-Ansert , ISBN: 9780323826464 All Chapters 1-29| Complete Guide A+ CA$28.73   Add to cart
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TEST BANK FOR Textbook of Diagnostic Sonography 9th Edition by Sandra L. Hagen-Ansert , ISBN: 9780323826464 All Chapters 1-29| Complete Guide A+

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Test Bank for Textbook of Diagnostic Sonography, 9th Edition Volume 1 by Sandra L. Hagen-Ansert. Volume one all chapters test bank included Chap 1 -30 VOLUME ONE Part I: Foundations of Sonography 1. Foundations of Clinical Sonography 2. Essentials of Patient Care for the Sonographer 3. Ergonomics a...

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TEST BANK Textbook of Diagnostic Sonography 9/E
Hagen-Ansert
Chapter 01: Foundations of Clinical Sonography

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Historically, the development of ultrasound began shortly after:
a. radio communication in World War I.
b. sonar in World War II.
c. nuclear testing in World War II.
d. the launching of Sputnik.

ANS: B
World War II brought sonar equipment to the forefront for defense purposes. Ultrasound was
influenced by the success of sonar equipment.

PTS: 1
OBJ: Detail a timeline for pioneers in the advancement of medical diagnostic ultrasound.
TOP: Historical overview of sound theory and medical ultrasound
KA
2. The early applications of obstetric ultrasound were initiated by:
a. Joseph Holmes and Douglas Howry.
b. Ian Donald and Tom Brown.
c. Hellmuth Hertz and Inge Edler.
d. William Fry and Russell Meyers.
G
ANS: B
The early obstetric compound scanner was built by Tom Brown and Dr. Ian Donald in
Scotland in 1957.
U
PTS: 1
OBJ: Detail a timeline for pioneers in the advancement of medical diagnostic ultrasound.
TOP: Historical overview of sound theory and medical ultrasound
A

3. Visualization of the cardiac structures in the heart was discovered by:
a. Joseph Holmes.
b. Ian Donald.
c. Hertz and Edler.
d. George Ludwig.
ANS: C
In 1954, echocardiographic techniques were developed in Sweden by Drs. C.H. Hertz and I.
Edler.

PTS: 1
OBJ: Detail a timeline for pioneers in the advancement of medical diagnostic ultrasound.
TOP: Historical overview of sound theory and medical ultrasound

4. Which one of the following statements about the role of sonographers is false?
a. Sonographers perform ultrasound studies and gather diagnostic data independent
of the physician.
b. Sonographers must possess intellectual curiosity and perseverance.

, c. Sonographers must have a technical aptitude.
d. Sonographers must be able to communicate on different levels.

ANS: A
A sonographer performs ultrasound studies gathering diagnostic data under both the direct and
the indirect supervision of a physician. They also must assess clinical history and symptoms,
interpret laboratory values, and understand other diagnostic examinations.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Describe the role of the sonographer.
TOP: Role of the sonographer

5. In soft tissues, the assumed propagation velocity is (in meters per second):
a. 1320.
b. 1450.
c. 1540.
d. 1650.
ANS: C
In soft tissues, the assumed propagation velocity (speed) is 1540 meters per second.

PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
KA
TOP: Introduction to basic ultrasound principles – Acoustics

6. Diagnostic ultrasound uses the frequencies of:
a. 10 to 15 kHz.
b. 1 to 20 kHz.
c. 100 to 1000 Hz.
G
d. 1 to 20 MHz.

ANS: D
Diagnostic application of ultrasound uses frequencies of 1 to 20 million cycles per second (1
U
to 20 MHz).

PTS: 1
A
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: Introduction to basic ultrasound principles – Acoustics

7. The device that converts energy from one form to another is called the:
a. digitizer.
b. transducer.
c. scan converter.
d. beam former.

ANS: B
Piezoelectric elements (transducers) convert electric energy into ultrasound energy and vice
versa.

PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: Transducer Selection in a Clinical Imaging Practice

8. The angle of reflection is equal to the:

, a. acoustic impedance.
b. angle of incidence.
c. refraction.
d. image resolution.
ANS: B
Angle of reflection is the angle between the reflected sound direction and a line perpendicular
to the media boundary.

PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: Propagation of sound through tissue

9. The display mode that shows time along the horizontal axis and depth along the vertical axis
is:
a. A mode.
b. B mode.
c. M-mode.
d. real-time.
ANS: C
Motion mode (M-mode) displays the depth along the vertical axis versus the time along the
KA
horizontal axis.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Identify ultrasound instruments and discuss their uses.
TOP: Pulse-echo display modes – M-mode

10. Which one of the following statements about the Doppler principle is false?
G
a. Doppler refers to a change in frequency in which the motion of laminar or
turbulent flow is detected within a vascular structure.
b. The beam should be perpendicular to the flow.
U
c. The Doppler shift is directly proportional to the velocity of the red blood cell.
d. If the red blood cell moves away from the transducer, then the fall in frequency is
directly proportional to the velocity and direction of the red blood cell movement.
A
ANS: B
The beam should be parallel to the flow to obtain the maximum velocity. The frequency of the
Doppler shift is proportional to the cosine of the Doppler angle. At a 90-degree angle
(perpendicular to flow), the Doppler shift is zero, regardless of the flow velocity.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Discuss three-dimensional and Doppler ultrasound.
TOP: Doppler Ultrasound – Doppler Effect

11. The Fresnel zone is also called the:
a. far field.
b. focal point.
c. near zone.
d. Nyquist limit.

ANS: C
The Fresnel or near zone is the field closest to the transducer during the formation of the
sound beam.

, PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: System Controls for Image Optimization – Focal Zone

12. The higher the transducer frequency, the:
a. shorter the wavelength.
b. faster the frame rate.
c. deeper the penetration depth.
d. slower the frame rate.

ANS: A
The higher the frequency, the shorter the wavelength (inversely related).

PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: Introduction to basic ultrasound principles – Frequency

13. The unit utilized to measure the intensity, amplitude, and power of an ultrasound wave is
called a:
a. kilohertz.
b. megahertz.
KA
c. decibel.
d. milliwatt.
ANS: C
The decibel unit is used to measure the intensity, amplitude, and power of an ultrasound wave.
G
PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: Introduction to basic ultrasound principles – Measurement of sound
U
14. The redirection of sound in multiple directions is known as:
a. refraction.
b. scattering.
A
c. absorption.
d. resistance.
ANS: B
Scattering refers to the redirection of sound in multiple directions.

PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: Introduction to basic ultrasound principles – Propagation of sound through tissue

15. The ability of an imaging process to distinguish adjacent structures in an object is called:
a. resolution.
b. pulse duration.
c. slice thickness.
d. attenuation.

ANS: A

,Resolution is the ability of an imaging proves to distinguish adjacent structures in an object
and is an important measure of image quality.

PTS: 1
OBJ: Demonstrate an understanding of the basic principles and terminology of ultrasound.
TOP: Introduction to basic ultrasound principles – Image resolution




KA
G
U
A

,Chapter 02: Essentials of Patient Care for the Sonographer
Hagen-Ansert: Textbook of Diagnostic Sonography, 9th Edition


MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The most common arrhythmias are:
a. supraventricular tachycardia.
b. tachycardia and bradycardia.
c. heart block.
d. asystole.
ANS: B
Tachycardia, a heart rate above 100 bpm, and bradycardia, a heart rate below 60 bpm, are the
most common cardiac arrhythmias.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Defined patient-focused care.
TOP: Basic patient care: Vital Signs

2. The normal amount of oxygen in the blood is:
a. 90%.
b. 85%.
KA
c. 80%.
d. 75%.

ANS: A
A normal reading for a person breathing room air is above 90%.
G
PTS: 1 OBJ: Define patient-focused care.
TOP: Basic patient care: Pulse Oximetry
U
3. A shortness of breath or the feeling of not getting enough air, which may leave a person
gasping, is called:
a. apnea.
A
b. wheezing.
c. hyperventilation.
d. dyspnea.

ANS: D
Dyspnea is defined as a shortness of breath or the feeling of not getting enough air, which
may leave a person gasping.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Discuss the basic patient care techniques covered in this chapter.
TOP: Basic patient care: Respiration

4. Which one of the following statements is false regarding the protocol for taking a blood
pressure?
a. If the patient is sitting, be sure he or she has both feet in the air.
b. The brachial artery in the upper arm is the usual site for manually taking a blood
pressure.
c. Move any clothing out of the way to place the blood pressure cuff properly.
d. Place the cuff above the elbow, making sure it is approximately an inch above the

, elbow.
ANS: A
When taking a blood pressure with the patient sitting, ensure that he or she has both feet on
the floor.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Discuss the basic patient care techniques covered in this chapter.
TOP: Basic patient care: Blood Pressure

5. Which one of the following statements is false regarding the nasogastric (NG) tube?
a. Never pull on the tube when moving the patient.
b. Check for leaks in both the NG tube and suction equipment. If found, report them
immediately.
c. Raise or open the drainage bottle as necessary.
d. Never disconnect the tubing without contacting the caretaker.
ANS: C
When a patient with an NG tube comes to the ultrasound department, the drainage bottle
should never be raised or opened.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Discuss the basic patient care techniques covered in this chapter.
TOP: Patients with tubes and tubing: Nasogastric tubes
KA
6. The basic principles of body mechanics require all of the following except:
a. maintain a stable center of gravity by keeping your center of gravity low and your
back straight and bending your hips and knees.
b. maintain a strong base of support by keeping your feet apart, placing one foot
slightly ahead of the other with the toes pointing in the direction of activity.
G
c. when lifting, flex your hips to absorb jolts, and turn with your feet instead of your
knees.
d. maintain a center of gravity by keeping your back straight and any objects being
U
lifted close to your body.
ANS: C
A
When lifting an object, maintain a strong base of support, flex your knees to absorb jolts, and
turn with your feet instead of your hips.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Describe patient transfer techniques.
TOP: Patient transfer techniques: Body Mechanics

7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding hand washing?
a. Wash your hands after touching blood, body fluids, or contaminated items—only
when gloves are not worn.
b. Wash your hands after removing gloves, between patient contacts, and whenever
indicated to avoid the transfer of microorganisms to other patients or the
environment.
c. Washing your hands between tasks and procedures on the same patient may be
necessary to prevent cross-contamination of different body sites.
d. Use plain soap for routine hand washing and an antimicrobial agent or waterless
agent for specific situations (e.g., to control outbreaks, for hyperendemic
infections).

, ANS: A
Wash your hands after touching blood, body fluids, or contaminated items—whether or not
gloves are worn.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Discuss infection control and isolation techniques.
TOP: Standard Precautions and Infection control: Hand washing

8. Examples of airborne transmission include all of the following except:
a. tuberculosis.
b. measles.
c. chickenpox.
d. mumps.

ANS: D
Mumps is spread via droplet transmission. Some diseases that are spread by airborne
transmission include tuberculosis, measles, chickenpox, and shingles.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Discuss infection control and isolation techniques.
TOP: Standard Precautions and Infection control: Airborne Precautions

9. Examples of contact transmission include all of the following except:
a. flu.
KA
b. pertussis.
c. impetigo.
d. scabies.
ANS: B
Pertussis is spread via droplet transmission. Flu, impetigo, scabies, methicillin-resistant
G
Streptococcus aureus (MRSA), pinkeye, wound infections, and hepatitis A are spread through
contact.
U
PTS: 1 OBJ: Discuss infection control and isolation techniques.
TOP: Standard Precautions and Infection control: Contact Precautions
A
10. Vital signs include all of the following except:
a. blood pressure.
b. pulse rate.
c. hematuria.
d. respiratory rate.

ANS: C
Vital signs include pulse, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and body temperature.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Define patient-focused care.
TOP: Basic patient care: Vital Signs

11. How many beats per minute (bpm) is the normal adult pulse rate?
a. 30 to 50
b. 50 to 75
c. 60 to 100
d. 100 to 120

, ANS: C
Normal adult pulse rates should be between 60 and 100 bpm with a regular beat.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Define patient-focused care. TOP: Basic patient care: Pulse

12. Guidelines to follow with patients who have an intravenous (IV) fluid container include all
except:
a. if needle is inserted in patient’s elbow area, keep arm straight.
b. watch for blood in the tubing site.
c. do nothing if IV bag is empty
d. notify caretaker if patient complains of pain or tenderness at IV site.
ANS: C
Always notify the caretaker when the IV bag is near empty. On gravity drip IVs there is no
alarm, so the sonographer needs to keep an eye on the bag, especially if there was less than
one-third to one-half volume of fluid remaining.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Describe how to assist patients with special needs.
TOP: Intravenous therapy

13. When transferring catheterized patients, the urine-collecting bag must be:
a. attached to the wheelchair or gurney.
KA
b. held below the level of the patient’s bladder.
c. emptied before starting the ultrasound examination.
d. analyzed for bacterial infection.
ANS: B
When transferring catheterized patients, the urine-collecting bag must be held below the level
G
of the patient’s bladder. This level will prevent urine in the bag from being siphoned into the
bladder.
U
PTS: 1 OBJ: Describe patient transfer techniques.
TOP: Patients with tubes and tubing: Urinary Catheters
A
14. Which one of the following is a special safety precaution for oxygen therapy?
a. Smoking where oxygen is used is allowed.
b. An oxygen cylinder can be placed next to a patient during transport.
c. Electrical equipment may be placed next to an oxygen cylinder.
d. The tank is secured in the upright position away from any heat source.
ANS: D
Securing the tank in the upright position away from any heat source, including electrical
equipment, is a special safety precaution for oxygen therapy. Not allowing smoking where
oxygen is being used and not placing an oxygen cylinder beside a patient when transporting
him or her by stretcher are additional special safety precautions.

PTS: 1 OBJ: Describe how to assist patients with special needs.
TOP: Patients with tubes and tubing: Oxygen Therapy

15. An artificial opening in the abdominal wall surrounded by a ring of mucosal tissue is called
a(n):
a. ostomy.

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