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WGU D115 Objective Assessment (Latest 2023/ 2024) Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse|300+ Questions and Verified Answers|100% Correct£9.86
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WGU D115 Objective Assessment (Latest 2023/ 2024) Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse|300+ Questions and Verified Answers|100% Correct
WGU D115 Objective Assessment: Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse|300+ Questions and Verified Answers|100% Correct
Q: A 17-year old female was diagnosed with angular cheilitis. She had treatment failure after a course of topical antibiotics, topical steroids, moisture barri...
WGU D115 Objective Assessment : Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse |300+ Questio ns and Verified Answers |100% Correct Q: A 17 -year old female was diagnosed with angular cheilitis. She had treatment failure af ter a course of topical antibiotics, topical steroids, moisture barrier creams, and antifungals were prescribed. What would be the most appropriate next step in this patient's plan of care? A) Refer the patient to an allergist B) Refer the patient to a der matologist C) Check the patient's vitamin B12 level D) Check the patient's ferritin level Answer: C) Check the patient's vitamin B12 level Angular cheilitis is a condition that causes red, swollen patches in the corners of the mouth. The most common caus e is a fungal infection. Other causes are vitamin B12 deficiency and bacterial infections. Q: Which finding is most consistent with acute otitis externa? A) Ringing in the affected ear B) Hearing loss and drainage but no pain C) Vertigo D) pruritis and history of recent swimming Answer: D) pruritis and history of recent swimming Otitis externa is a condition that causes inflammation (redness and swelling) of the external ear canal.Otit is externa is often referred to as "swimmer's ear" because repeated exposure to water can make the ear canal more vulnerable to inflammation. Q: An 15 -year old male patient presents to the clinic with abdominal pain and fatigue, and is diagnosed with in fectious mononucleosis. Which is the most important part of this patient's plan of care? A) He should not return to school until fever free for 48 hours B) He should avoid contact sports for up to 4 weeks C) He should complete a 10 -day course of amoxicilli n D) He should be reassured that fatigue usually resolves in 5 -7 days of onset Answer: B) He should avoid contact sports for up to 4 weeks Because the spleen may become enlarged as a result of infectious mononucleosis, patients should avoid contact sport s until fully recovered. Participating in contact sports can be strenuous and may cause the spleen to rupture. Q: A 20 -year old female reports a history of "cold symptoms" for 12 days. Her physical exam reveals unilateral facial pain and purulent nasal discharge. Which diagnosis are these findings consistent with? A) Viral respiratory infection B) Influenza B C) Allergic Rhinitis D) Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis Answer: D) Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis Symptoms of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis include facial pain or pressure, postnasal drip, nasal congestion, upper jaw or tooth pain, nasal discharge, fever, and cough. Symptoms are present for 10 days or longer. Q: How is transcription best defined? A) RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. B) RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis. C) A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence D) DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on ribonucleic acid (RNA ). Answer: A) RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. Transcription is the process by which the information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA). Q: An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase i n which protein is evident? A) DNA polymerase B) Embryonic proteins C) Cytochrome P -450 D) Alpha fetoprotein Answer: D) Alpha fetoprotein High levels of AFP may suggest the developing baby has a neural tube defect such as spina bifida or anencephaly. Q: Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant with what history? A) Have experienced in vitro fertilization B) Have a history of chronic illn ess C) Had a late menarche D) Have a family history of genetic disorders Answer: D) Have a family history of genetic disorders Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women 35 and older, women with a positive prenatal screening test, chromosomal condit ion or neural tube defect in previous pregnancy, family history of genetic disorders, or abnormal ultrasound results. Q: What is the technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10 to 12 weeks' gestation? A) Chorionic villus sampling B) Amniocentesis C) Linkage analysis D) Gene mapping Answer: A) Chorionic villus sampling Amniocentesis is usually performed during the 15th week of pregnancy or later. CVS is usually performed between the 10th and 13th weeks of pregnancy. Q: What is the term for an error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or mitosis? A) Polyploidy B) Nondisjunction C) Aneuploidy D) Translocation Answer: B) Nondisjunction Nondisjunction means that a pair of homologous chromosom es has failed to separate or segregate at anaphase so that both chromosomes of the pair pass to the same daughter cell. This probably occurs most commonly in meiosis, but it may occur in mitosis to produce a mosaic individual. Q: What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? A) Maternal nondisjunction B) Maternal translocations C) Paternal translocation D) Paternal nondisjunction Answer: A) Maternal nondisjunction Down syndrome is usually caused by an error in cell division called "nondisjunction." Nondisjunction results in an embryo with three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two. In the majority of cases, the extra copy of chromosome 21 comes from the mother in the egg. Q: What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromos ome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck? A) Klinefelter B) Cri du chat C) Turner D) Down Answer: C) Turner
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