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CRNA Anesthesia Drugs Practice Test Quiz with Combined Q & A 2023/2024 GRADED A+ £5.63   Add to cart

Exam (elaborations)

CRNA Anesthesia Drugs Practice Test Quiz with Combined Q & A 2023/2024 GRADED A+

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  • Module
  • CRNA - Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist
  • Institution
  • CRNA - Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist

CRNA Anesthesia Drugs Practice Test Quiz with Combined Q & A 2023/2024 GRADED A+ Pentothal correct answers Sodium Thiopental Barbiturate Concentration: 25 mg/mL IV dose: 3-5 mg/kg Pentothal info correct answers Sodium Thiopental Sorption concern (PVC bag pulls in some of the drug) Dipr...

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  • December 7, 2023
  • 9
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • CRNA - Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist
  • CRNA - Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist
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CRNA Anesthesia Drugs Practice Test Quiz with Combined Q &
A 2023/2024 GRADED A+
Pentothal correct answers Sodium Thiopental
Barbiturate
Concentration: 25 mg/mL
IV dose: 3-5 mg/kg

Pentothal info correct answers Sodium Thiopental
Sorption concern (PVC bag pulls in some of the drug)

Diprivan correct answers Propofol
Diisopropylphenol
Concentration: 10 mg/mL
IV dose: 1.5-2.5 mg/kg

Diprivan info correct answers Propofol
ADRs: hypotension, apnea, hypertriglyceridemia, green urine, propofol-related infusion syndrome
Monitor triglycerides (if on >2 days)
Formulated in lipid emulsion

Amidate correct answers Etomidate
Carboxylated imidazole
Concentration: 2 mg/mL
IV dose: 0.1-0.4 mg/kg

Amidate info correct answers Etomidate
Rapid onset, not intended for prolonged infusion

Ketalar correct answers Ketamine
Phencyclidine
Concentration: 5-100 mg/mL
IV dose: 1-2.5 mg/kg

Ketalar info correct answers Ketamine
Stimulates SNS + causes bronchodilation so maintains airway tone + reflexes
Good for patients in circulatory shock
Psychic/dissociative events

Versed correct answers Midazolam
Benzodiazepine
Concentration: 1, 5 mg/mL
IV dose: 0.025-0.06 mg/kg

Versed info correct answers Midazolam
ADRs: respiratory depression, apnea, oversedation, hypotension
Used for short-term sedation (<48 hours)

, Active metabolite that accumulates in renal dysfunction
Causes anterograde amnesia by suppressing limbic system
*Reversible with flumazenil (blocks benzo binding)*

Valium correct answers Diazepam
Benzodiazepine
Concentration: 5, 10 mg/mL
IV dose: 0.05-0.2 mg/kg

Valium info correct answers Diazepam
ADRs: drowsiness, dizziness, weakness, ataxia
Anterograde amnesia
Withdrawal symptoms when discontinued

Sublimaze correct answers Fentanyl
Opioid
Concentration: 50 mcg/mL
IV dose: 0.5-2 mcg/kg

Sublimaze info correct answers Fentanyl
ADRs: respiratory depression, bradycardia, constipation, rigidity with high doses
Less hypotension than with morphine due to no histamine release
Preferred in patients with unstable hemodynamics

Morphine correct answers Morphine
Opioid
Concentration: 10 mg/mL
IV dose: 0.05-0.2 mg/kg

Morphine info correct answers Morphine
ADRs: respiratory depression, hypotension, oversedation, bradycardia, pruritus, xerostomia, constipation
Active metabolite (morphine-6-glucuronide) can accumulate in renal impairment; causes histamine
release

Sufenta correct answers Sufentanil
Opioid
Concentration: 50 mcg/mL
IV dose: 0.05-0.2 mcg/kg

Sufenta info correct answers Sufentanil
Sorption concern (PVC bag pulls in some of the drug)

Ultiva correct answers Remifentanil
Opioid
Concentration: 2 mg/mL
IV dose: 0.25 mcg/kg

Ultiva info correct answers Remifentanil

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