TEST BANK FOR
Current Medical Diagnosis And Treatment 2024,
63rd Edition
By Maxine Papadakis, Stephen Mcphee
Chapters 1 - 42
,Chapter 1. Disease Prevention & Health Promotion
1. Which of the following behaviors indicates the highest potential for spreading infections
among clients? The nurse:
1) disinfects dirty hands with antibacterial soap.
2) allows alcohol-based rub to dry for 10 seconds.
3) washes hands only after leaving each room.
4) uses cold water for medical asepsis.
2. What is the most frequent cause of the spread of infection among institutionalized
patients?
1) Airborne microbes from other patients
2) Contact with contaminated equipment
3) Hands of healthcare workers
4) Exposure from family members
3. Which of the following nursing activities is of highest priority for maintaining medical
asepsis?
1) Washing hands
2) Donning gloves
3) Applying sterile drapes
4) Wearing a gown
4. A patient infected with a virus but who does not have any outward sign of the disease is
considered a:
1) pathogen.
2) fomite.
3) vector.
4) carrier.
5. A patient is admitted to the hospital with tuberculosis. Which precautions must the nurse
institute when caring for this patient?
1) Droplet transmission
2) Airborne transmission
3) Direct contact
4) Indirect contact
, 6. A patient becomes infected with oral candidiasis (thrush) while receiving intravenous
antibiotics to treat a systemic infection. Which type of infection has the patient developed?
1) Endogenous nosocomial
2) Exogenous nosocomial
3) Latent
4) Primary
7.The nurse assists a surgeon with central venous catheter insertion. Which action is
necessary to help maintain sterile technique?
1) Closing the patients door to limit room traffic while preparing the sterile field
2) Using clean procedure gloves to handle sterile equipment
3) Placing the nonsterile syringes containing flush solution on the sterile field
4) Remaining 6 inches away from the sterile field during the procedure
8.A patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia has been receiving antibiotics for 2
days. His condition has stabilized, and his temperature has returned to normal. Which stage of
infection is the patient most likely experiencing?
1) Incubation
2) Prodromal
3) Decline
4) Convalescence
5) 8.
9. A patient develops localized heat and erythema over an area on the lower leg. These
findings are indicative of which secondary defense against infection?
1) Phagocytosis
2) Complement cascade
3) Inflammation
4) Immunity
10. The patient suddenly develops hives, shortness of breath, and wheezing after receiving
an antibiotic. Which antibody is primarily responsible for this patients response?
1) IgA
2) IgE
3) IgG
4) IgM
11. What type of immunity is provided by intravenous (IV) administration of
immunoglobulin G?
1) Cell-mediated
2) Passive
3) Humoral
4) Active
, 12. A patient asks the nurse why there is no vaccine available for the common cold. Which
response by the nurse is correct?
1) The virus mutates too rapidly to develop a vaccine.
2) Vaccines are developed only for very serious illnesses.
3) Researchers are focusing efforts on an HIV vaccine.
4) The virus for the common cold has not been identified.
1 . A patient who has a temperature of 101F (38.3C) most likely requires:
1) acetaminophen (Tylenol).
2) increased fluids.
3) bedrest.
4) tepid bath.
14. Why is a lotion without petroleum preferred over a petroleum-based product as a skin
protectant? It:
1) Prevents microorganisms from adhering to the skin.
2) Facilitates the absorption of latex proteins through the skin.
3) Decreases the risk of latex allergies.
4) Prevents the skin from drying and chaffing.
15. For which range of time must a nurse wash her hands before working in the operating
room?
1) 1 to 2 minutes
2) 2 to 4 minutes
3) 2 to 6 minutes
4) 6 to 10 minutes
16. How should the nurse dispose of the breakfast tray of a patient who requires airborne
isolation?
1) Place the tray in a specially marked trash can inside the patients room.
Place the tray in a special isolation bag held by a second healthcare worker at the
2) patients door.
Return the tray with a note to dietary services so it can be cleaned and reused for the
3) next meal.
Carry the tray to an isolation trash receptacle located in the dirty utility room and
4) dispose of it there.
1 . How much liquid soap should the nurse use for effective hand washing? At least:
1) 2 mL
2) 3 mL
3) 6 mL
4) 7 mL
, 18. To assure effectiveness, when should the nurse stop rubbing antiseptic hand solution
over all surfaces of the hands?
1) When fingers feel sticky
2) After 5 to 10 seconds
3) When leaving the clients room
4) Once fingers and hands feel dry
19. A patient is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy and has a low white blood cell
count. Which precaution should the staff take with this patient?
1) Contact
2) Protective
3) Droplet
4) Airborne
20. While donning sterile gloves, the nurse notices the edges of the glove package are
slightly yellow. The yellow area is over 1 inch away from the gloves and only appears to be on
the outside of the glove package. What is the best action for the nurse to take at this point?
1) Continue using the gloves inside the package because the package is intact.
2) Remove gloves from sterile field and use a new pair of sterile gloves.
3) Throw all supplies away that were to be used and begin again.
4) Use the gloves and make sure the yellow edges of the package do not touch the client.
21. The nurse is removing personal protective equipment (PPE). Which item should be
removed first?
1) Gown
2) Gloves
3) Face shield
4) Hair covering
22. A nurse is splashed in the face by body fluid during a procedure. Prioritize the nurses
actions, listing the most important one first.
A. Contact employee health
B. Complete an incident report
C. Wash the exposed area
D. Report to another nurse that she is leaving the immediate area.
1) 1, 2, 3, 4
2) 2, 3, 4, 1
3) 3, 4, 1, 2
4) 4, 1, 2, 3
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
1. In which situation would using standard precautions be adequate? Select all that apply.
, 1) While interviewing a client with a productive cough
2) While helping a client to perform his own hygiene care
3) While aiding a client to ambulate after surgery
4) While inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter
2. Which of the following protect(s) the body against infection? Select all that apply.
1) Eating a healthy well-balanced diet
2) Being an older adult or an infant
3) Leisure activities three times a week
4) Exercising for 30 minutes 5 days a week
3. The nurse is teaching a group of newly hired nursing assistive personnel (NAP) about
proper hand washing. The nurse will know that the teaching was effective if the NAP
demonstrate what? Select all that apply. The NAP:
1) uses a paper towel to turn off the faucet.
2) holds fingertips above the wrists while rinsing off the soap.
3) removes all rings and watch before washing hands.
4) cleans underneath each fingernail.
4. Alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene can be used to combat which types of
organisms? Select all that apply.
1) Virus
2) Bacterial spores
3) Yeast
4) Mold
5. A patient with tuberculosis is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). How should the
nurse proceed? Select all that apply.
1) Question the order because the patient must remain in isolation.
2) Place an N-95 respirator mask on the patient and transport him to the test.
3) Place a surgical mask on the patient and transport him to CT lab.
4) Notify the computed tomography department about precautions prior to transport.
True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
1. Bacteria are necessary for human health and well-being.
Chapter 1. Disease prevention
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANSWER: 3
Patients acquire infection by contact with other patients, family members, and healthcare
equipment. But most infection among patients is spread through the hands of healthcare workers.
Hand washing interrupts the transmission and should be done before and after all contact with
,patients, regardless of the diagnosis. When the hands are soiled, healthcare staff should use
antibacterial soap with warm water to remove dirt and debris from the skin surface. When no
visible dirt is present, an alcohol-based rub should be applied and allowed to dry for 10 to 15
seconds.
2. ANSWER: 3
Patients are exposed to microbes by contact (direct contact, airborne, or otherwise) with other
patients, family members, and contaminated healthcare equipment. Some of these are pathogenic
(cause illness) and some are nonpathogenic (do not cause illness). But most microbes causing
infection among patients are spread by direct contact on the hands of healthcare workers.
3. ANSWER: 1
Scrupulous hand washing is the most important part of medical asepsis. Donning gloves,
applying sterile drapes before procedures, and wearing a protective gown may be needed to
ensure asepsis, but they are not the mostimportant aspect because microbes causing most
healthcare-related infections are transmitted by lack of or ineffective hand washing.
4. ANSWER: 4
Some people might harbor a pathogenic organism, such as the human immunodeficiency virus
within their body, and yet do not acquire the disease/infection. These individuals, called carriers,
have no outward sign of active disease, yet they can pass the infection to others. A pathogen is an
organism capable of causing disease. A fomite is a contaminated object that transfers a pathogen,
such as pens, stethoscopes, and contaminated needles. A vector is an organism that carries a
pathogen to a susceptible host through a portal for entry into the body. An example of a vector is
a mosquito or tick that bites or stings.
5. ANSWER: 2
The organisms responsible for measles and tuberculosis, as well as many fungal infections, are
spread through airborne transmission. Neisseria meningitidis, the organism that causes
meningitis, is spread through droplet transmission. Pathogens that cause diarrhea, such
as Clostridium difficile, are spread by direct contact. The common cold can be spread by indirect
contact or droplet transmission.
6. ANSWER: 1
Thrush in this patient is an example of an endogenous, nosocomial infection. This type of
infection arises from suppression of the patients normal flora as a result of some form of
treatment, such as antibiotics. Normal flora usually keep yeast from growing in the mouth. In
exogenous nosocomial infection, the pathogen arises from the healthcare environment. A latent
infection causes no symptoms for long periods. An example of a latent infection is human
immunodeficiency virus infection. A primary infection is the first infection that occurs in a
patient.
7. ANSWER: 3
The stage of decline occurs when the patients immune defenses, along with any medical
therapies (in this case antibiotics), are successfully reducing the number of pathogenic microbes.
As a result, the signs and symptoms of infection begin to fade. Incubation is the stage between
the invasion by the organism and the onset of symptoms. During the incubation stage, the patient
does not know he is infected and is capable of infecting others. The prodromal stage is
characterized by the first appearance of vague symptoms. Convalescence is characterized by
tissue repair and a return to heal as the organisms disappear.
8. ANSWER: 1
,To maintain sterile technique, the nurse should close the patients door and limit the number of
persons entering and exiting the room because air currents can carry dust and microorganisms.
Sterile gloves, not clean gloves, should be used to handle sterile equipment. Placing nonsterile
syringes on the sterile field contaminates the field. One foot, not 6 inches, is required between
people and the sterile field to prevent contamination.
9. ANSWER: 3
The classic signs of inflammation, a secondary defense against infection, are erythema (redness)
and localized heat. The secondary defenses phagocytosis (process by which white blood cells
engulf and destroy pathogens) and the complement cascade (process by which blood proteins
trigger the release of chemicals that attack the cell membranes of pathogens) do not produce
visible findings. Immunity is a tertiary defense that protects the body from future infection.
10. ANSWER: 2
The patient is most likely experiencing an allergic response to the antibiotic. IgE is the antibody
primarily responsible for this allergic response. The antibodies IgA, IgG, and IgM are not
involved in the allergic response. IgA antibodies protect the body from in fighting viral and
bacterial infections. IgG antibioties are the only type that cross the placenta in a pregnant women
to protect her unborn baby (fetus). IgM are the first antibodies made in response to infection.
11. ANSWER: 2
Intravenous administration of immunoglobulin G provides the patient with passive immunity.
Immunoglobulin G does not provide cell-mediated, humoral, or active immunity. Passive
immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred by antibodies from an immune host, such as
from a placenta to a fetus. Passive immunity is short-lived. Active immunity is longer lived and
comes from the host itself. Humoral immunity occurs by secreted antibodies binding to antigens.
Cell-mediated immunity does not involve antibodies but rather fight infection from macrophages
that kills pathogens.
12. ANSWER: 1
More than 200 viruses are known to cause the common cold. These viruses mutate too rapidly to
develop a vaccine. Although some researchers are focusing efforts on a vaccine for HIV
infection, others continue to research the common cold.
13. ANSWER: 2
Fever, a common defense against infection, increases water loss; therefore, additional fluid is
needed to supplement this loss. Acetaminophen and a tepid bath are not necessary for this low-
grade fever because fever is beneficial in fighting infection. Adequate rest, not necessarily
bedrest, is necessary with a fever.
14. ANSWER: 3
Nonpetroleum-based lotion is preferred because it prevents the absorption of latex proteins
through the skin, which can cause latex allergy. Both types of lotion prevent the skin from drying
and becoming chafed. Neither prevents microorganisms from adhering to the skin.
15. ANSWER: 3
In a surgical setting, hands should be washed for 2 to 6 minutes, depending on the type of soap
used.
16. ANSWER: 2
Patients who require airborne isolation are served meals on disposable dishes and trays. To
dispose of the tray, the nurse inside the room must wear protective garb and place the tray and its
,contents inside a special isolation bag that is held by a second healthcare worker at the patients
door. The items must be placed on the inside of the bag without touching the outside of the bag.
17. ANSWER: 2
APIC guidelines dictate that 3 to 5 mL of liquid soap is necessary for effective hand washing.
18. ANSWER: 4
The nurse should rub the antiseptic hand solution over all surfaces of the hands until the solution
dries, usually 10 to 15 seconds, to ensure effectiveness.
19. ANSWER: 2
Protective isolation is used to protect those patients who are unusually vulnerable to organisms
brought in by healthcare workers. Such patients include those with low white blood cell counts,
with burns, and undergoing chemotherapy. Some hospital units, such as neonatal intensive care
units and labor and delivery suites, also use forms of protective isolation.
20. ANSWER: 2
The gloves should be thrown away because the gloves are likely to be contaminated from an
outside source. The supplies do not have to be thrown away because they have not been
contaminated.
21. ANSWER: 2
The gloves are removed first because they are usually the most contaminated PPE and must be
removed to avoid contamination of clean areas of the other PPE during their removal. The gown
is removed second, then the mask or face shield, and finally, the hair covering.
22. ANSWER: 3
If a nurse becomes exposed to body fluid, she should first wash the area, tell another nurse she is
leaving the area, contact the infection control or employee health nurse immediately, and
complete an incident report. It is most important to remove the source of contamination (body
fluid) as soon as possible after exposure to help prevent the nurses from becoming infected. The
other activities can wait until that is done.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. ANSWER: 3, 4
Standard precautions should be instituted with all clients whenever there is a possibility of
coming in contact with blood, body fluids (except sweat), excretions, secretions, mucous
membranes, and breaks in the skin (e.g., while inserting a peripheral IV). When interviewing a
client, if the disease is not spread by air or droplets, there is no likelihood of the nurses
encountering body fluids. If the disease is spread by air or droplets, then droplet or airborne
precautions would be needed in addition to standard precautions. If giving a complete bed bath
or performing oral hygiene, the nurse would need to use standard precautions (gloves); if merely
assisting a client to perform those ADLs, it is not necessary. No exposure to body fluids is likely
when helping a client to ambulate after surgery.
2. ANSWER: 1, 3, 4
Nutrition, hygiene, rest, exercise, stress reduction, and immunization protect the body against
infection. Illness, injury, medical treatment, infancy or old age, frequent public contact, and
various lifestyle factors can make the body more susceptible to infection.
3. ANSWER: 1, 3, 4
Hand washing requires at least 15 seconds of washing, which includes lathering all surfaces of
the hands and fingers to be effective. The fingers should be held lower than the wrists.
4. ANSWER: 1, 3, 4
, If there is potential for contact with bacterial spores, hands must be washed with soap and water;
alcohol-based solutions are ineffective against bacterial spores.
5. ANSWER: 3, 4
Transporting a patient who requires airborne precautions should be limited; however, when
necessary the patient should wear a surgical mask (an N-95 respirator mask is not required) that
covers the mouth and nose to prevent the spread of infection. Moreover, the department where
the patient is being transported should be notified about the precautions before transport.
TRUE/FALSE
1. ANSWER: T
Organisms that normally inhabit the body, called normal flora, are essential for human health and
well-being. They keep pathogens in check. In the intestine, these flora function to aid digestion
and promote the release of vitamin K, vitamin B12, thiamine, and riboflavin.
Chapter 1 Health Promotion (Part 2)
1. A client informs the nurse that he has quit smoking because his father died from lung
cancer 3 months ago. Based on his motivation, smoking cessation should be recognized as an
example of which of the following?
1) Healthy living
2) Health promotion
3) Wellness behaviors
4) Health protection
2. A patient with morbid obesity was enrolled in a weight loss program last month and has
attended four weekly meetings. But now he believes he no longer needs to attend meetings
because he has learned what to do. He informs the nurse facilitator about his decision to quit the
program. What should the nurse tell him?
By now you have successfully completed the steps of the change process. You should be
1) able to successfully lose the rest of the weight on your own.
Although you have learned some healthy habits, you will need at least another 6 weeks
2) before you can quit the program and have success.
You have done well in this program. However, it is important to continue in the program
to learn how to maintain weight loss. Otherwise, you are likely to return to your previous
3) lifestyle.
You have entered the determination stage and are ready to make positive changes that
you can keep for the rest of your life. If you need additional help, you can come back at
4) a later time.
3. The school nurse at a local elementary school is performing physical fitness assessments
on the third-grade children. When assessing students cardiorespiratory fitness, the most
appropriate test is to have the students:
1) Step up and down on a 12-inch bench.
2) Perform the sit-and-reach test.
3) Run a mile without stopping, if they can.
4) Perform range-of-motion exercises.
