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2024 CCRN REAL EXAM TEST BANK QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2024 A+ GRADED 100% VERIFIED NEW!!! TESTBANK
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2024 CCRN REAL EXAM TEST BANK QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2024 A+ GRADED 100% VERIFIED NEW!!! TESTBANK
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2024 CCRN REAL EXAM TEST BANK QUEST IONS & ANSWERS 2024 A+ GRADED 100% VERIFIED NEW!!! TESTBANK Which of the following would be the earliest auscultatory finding in left ventricular failure (LVF)? A. Crackles B. S3 C. Murmur of mitral regurgitation D. Pericardial friction rub - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔B. S3 LVF would be the most subtle because early changes are usually subtle changes. Choose "S3." A patient with a triple -lumen subclavian catheter has been receiving total parenteral nutrition, maintenance f luids, and antibiotics by the catheter. He has been slightly confused. Suddenly he grasps the catheter and pulls it out. He then complains of shortness of breath, and his pulse oximetry indicates an SpO2 of 84%. How should this patient be positioned? A. Head down, left side B. Head down, right side C. Head of bed elevated, left side D. Head of bed elevated, right side - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔A. Head down, left side Envision a big air bubble in the patient's heart. Think: what position would decrease the move ment of the air embolism out of the right side of the heart. Chose "Head down, left side." Oxygen delivery (DO2) i s the product of which of the following? A. PaO2, hemoglobin, mean arterial pressure B. SaO2, hemoglobin, cardiac output C. SvO2, cardiac index, SaO2 D. PaO2, mean arterial pressure, SvO2 - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔B. SaO2, hemoglobin, cardiac output Oxygen is delivered from the arterial end, so choose an option that has SaO2 Which of the following is the most significant complication of status asthmaticus? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Acute respiratory failure C. Hypertension D. Anaphylaxis - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔B. Acute respiratory failure A 22-year-old man is admitted to the cr itical care unit after a motor vehicle collision. The emergency department nurse reports that he was unconscious at the scene of the accident, but he is now alert and oriented. Skull films show a linear fracture of the right temporal bone. He is at signifi cant risk for: A. scalp hematoma. B. subdural hematoma. C. epidural hematoma. D. intracerebral hematoma. - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔C. epidural hematoma. Linear fractures of the temporal bone frequently disrupt the middle meningeal artery and cause epidural he matoma. Patients with an epidural hematoma classically present with a short period of unconsciousness followed by a lucid interval and then rapid deterioration. An epidural hematoma is usually caused by arterial bleeding . A patient is admitted to the ICU after sustaining a concussion and blunt abdominal trauma to the right upper quadrant in a domestic dispute. The patient's vital signs are BP 145/86 mm Hg, pulse 86 beats/min, respiration 15 breaths/min, and temperature 98.8° F. The nurse is monitoring the patient's bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and abdominal girth frequently. Which of the following laboratory parameters is especially important for the nurse to closely monitor for bleeding in this patient? A. Platelet count B. Protime C. Hematocrit D. Mean corpuscular volume - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔C. Hematocrit Common injuries resulting from blunt abdominal trauma can include injury to the liver, spleen, mesenteric vessels, pancreas, or kidneys. In a nonoperative approac h to blunt abdominal trauma, observation and monitoring include serial hematocrits to evaluate for intra-abdominal bleeding. The platelet count does not fluctuate unless there is a disease process (e.g. cirrhosis, leukemia) or significant blood loss. Proti me is a monitor of coagulation status and can be prolonged without active bleeding. Mean corpuscular volume measures the average volume or size of a single RBC and is used in classifying anemias. Which of the following is associated with chest pain, confu sion, and petechiae? A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Fat embolism C. Pneumothorax D. Myocardial infarction - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔B. Fat embolism Chest pain, confusion, and petechiae are suggestive of a fat embolism, especially within the first 48 to 72 hours af ter a long -bone fracture. The clincher is the petechiae. None of the other choices would cause petechiae. Which type of shock is most likely to be iatrogenic? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Neurogenic - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔C. Septic Iatrogenic means caused by treatment or diagnostic procedures or medically induced. Septic shock is the type of shock most likely to be iatrogenic. Significant contributors include immunosuppressive medications and therapies and invasive procedures. A pat ient had a craniotomy 2 days ago for removal of a tumor. He is awake and talking to the nurse and demonstrates no neurologic deficit. Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, pulse is 92 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. Urine outputs have been approximately 60 ml/hr over the last 2 days, but he has had a recent change. He has had 300 to 400 ml/hr of urine output over the last several hours. The urine has a specific gravity of 1.002. The nurse checks his serum glucose and finds that it is 100 mg/dl. The cause of hypernatremia in this patient is: A. sodium retention. B. water loss. C. water gain. D. aldosterone excess. - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔B. water loss This case is an example of diabetes insipidus, which is caused by a lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH causes water retention in the renal tubules but not sodium retention, so eliminate sodium retention. A lack of ADH causes water loss not water gain, so eliminate water gain. Diabetes insipidus does not have anything to do with aldosterone. The h ypernatremia is a concentration effect caused by water loss. This sometimes is called hypovolemic hypernatremia. A patient is admitted with unstable angina. He has a long history of hypertension and coronary artery disease. The nurse notes a split S2on ex piration and a single S2 on inspiration during cardiac auscultation. Blood pressure is 150/88 mm Hg, and heart rate is 88 beats/min. On the electrocardiogram, there is a normal -appearing P wave in front of each QRS complex, the PR interval measures 0.2 sec ond consistently, and the QRS complexes measure 0.14 second. They are positive in V5 and V6 and negative in V1 and V2. These findings most likely indicate which of the following? A. Left bundle branch block (LBBB) B. Right bundle branch block (RBBB) C. Third -degree atrioventricular block D. Ventricular tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔A. Left bundle branch block (LBBB) Features of LBBB described here are a QRS complex greater than 0.12 second in duration and a QRS complex that is positive in leads V5 and V6 (consider these left ventricular leads) and negative in leads V1 and V2 (consider these right ventricular leads). LBBB causes a paradoxical splitting of S2. 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