TEST BANK FOR GENETICS AND GENOMICS IN NURSING AND HEALTH CARE 1ST EDITION
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GENETICS AND GENOMICS IN NURSING AND
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Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care
TEST BANK FOR GENETICS AND GENOMICS IN NURSING AND HEALTH CARE 1ST EDITION
1.
In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located?
A.
Nucleus
B.
Mitochondrion
C.
Cytoplasm
D.
Plasma membrane
2.
Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics...
test bank for genetics and genomics in nursing and
in which body or cell area are most genes in human
which condition or statement exemplifies the conce
what is the correct interpretation of the state
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Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located? A. Nucleus B. Mitochondrion C. Cytoplasm D. Plasma membrane 2. Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics? A. The gene for insulin is located on chromosome 11 in all people. B. Expression of any single gene is dependent on inheriting two alleles. C. Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more often than females. D. One allele for each gene is inherited from the mother and one is inherited from the father. 3. What is the correct interpretation of the statement “the HFE gene locus is 6p21”? A. Both alleles of the HFE gene are equally expressed. B. The HFE gene is inherited from the paternal chromosome line. C. The HFE gene alleles are located on the “short arms” of chromosome number 6. D. There is a somatic cell mutation involving gene allele damage on chromosome 6. 4. What is the purpose of phosphorous in a DNA strand? A. Linking the nucleotides into a strand B. Holding complementary strands together C. Ensuring that a purine is always paired with a pyrimidine D. Preventing the separation of double -stranded DNA into single -stranded DNA 5. What is the term used to define alternative forms of a gene that may result in different expression of the trait coded for by that gene? A. Alleles B. Bases C. Centromeres D. Diploids 6. What percentage of bases in a stretch of double -stranded DNA that contains 30% guanine (G) bases would be adenine (A)? A. 70% B. 60% C. 30% D. 20% 7. What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used to determine whether chromosome numbers, structures, and banding patterns are normal? A. Pedigree B. Phenotype C. Karyotype D. Autosome 8. What would be the sequence of DNA that is complementary to a DNA section with the base sequence of GGTCAATCCTTAG? A. GATTCCTAACTGG B. TTGACCGAAGGCT C. AACTGGCTTCCGA D. CCAGTTAGGAATC 9. Which of these complementary base pairs form the strongest or “tightest” association? A. Adenine and thymine B. Cytosine and guanine C. Guanine and thymine D. Cytosine and Adenine 10. What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle? A. The cell undergoes cytokinesis. B. Activity stops and the cell “sleeps.” C. All DNA is completely replicated. D. Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis. 11. Which chromosome number represents the euploid state for normal human somatic cells? A. 44 B. 46 C. 47 D. 48 12. How does the proteome differ from the genome? A. The proteome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals. B. The genome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals. C. The proteome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the genome is stable in both som atic cells and germ cells. D. The genome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the proteome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells. 13. What is the most outstanding feature of a mature haploid cell? A. It is usually homozygous. B. The sex chromosomes are missing. C. Only one chromosome of each pair is present. D. DNA synthesis occurs after mitosis instead of before. 14. At what phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes visible as separate structures? A. G1 B. G2 C. S D. M 15. Which statement about G 0 is true? A. Hyperplastic growth in place of hypertrophic growth B. Performance of specific differentiated functions C. Initiation and completion of nucleokinesis D. Replication of DNA 16. What is the result of DNA replication? A. Formation of two new daughter cells B. Formation of two identical sets of DNA C. Disappearance of the original parent cell D. Activation and attachment of spindle fibers 17. Which statement regarding chromosome structure or function is true? A. The chromatids of any single chromosome are known as “sister chromatids.” B. The genes located on the telomeres of chromosomes are identical to the genes in the centromeres. C. Immediately before the mitosis phase of cell division, the chromosomes of all somatic cells are haploid. D. A specific gene allele on one chromosome has a complementary allele on the other chromosome of a pair. 18. Why does a person with normal chromosomes only have two alleles for any single gene trait? A. A minimum of two alleles is required for the expression of monogenic traits. B. When a dominant allele is paired with a recessive allele, only the dominant allele is expressed and the recessive allele is silent. C. One allele for the monogenic trait is on the paternally derived chromosome and the other allele is on the maternally derived chromosome. D. Expression of more than two alleles of any single gene trait results in enhanced expression of recessive alleles and suppressed expression of dominant alleles. 19. Under what normal condition are genotype and phenotype always the same? A. Trisomy of alleles B. Triploidy of alleles C. Homozygosity of alleles D. Heterozygosity of alleles 20. What would be the expected result of a drug that affected a particular tissue by causing new DNA to form with covalent bonds instead of hydrogen bonds? A. None of the cells in the affected tissue would be able to leave G0 and enter the cell cycle. B. Replication of DNA would result in identical DNA strands instead of complementary strands.
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