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Test Bank - Abrams’ Clinical Drug Therapy: Rationales for Nursing Practice, 13th Edition (Frandsen, 2025), Chapter 1-61 | All Chapters | 9781975222321£14.75
TEST BANK FOR ABRAMS' CLINICAL DRUG THERAPY: RATIONALES FOR NURSING PRACTICE| All chapters included| Graded A+ | LATEST
ABRAMS' CLINICAL DRUG THERAPY: RATIONALES FOR NURSING PRACTICE
abrams clinical drug therapy rationales for nursing practice 12th edition geralyn frandsen test bank
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Test Bank - Abrams’ Clinical Drug Therapy: Rationales for
Nursing Practice, 13th Edition (Frandsen, 2025), Chapter 1-61
| All Chapters | 9781975222321
Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C. The State Board of Nursing for each state
D. The State Board of Pharmacy - ANSWER: C. The State Board of Nursing for each state
The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber
include:
A. Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their
basic nursing program and in their APRN program.
B. Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision making
regarding their care.
C. APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances.
D. APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician's - ANSWER: B. Nurses
care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision making regarding
their care.
Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C. Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs - ANSWER: A. Factoring in the cost to the patient of
the medication prescribed
Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing - ANSWER: B. Consulting
nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform because of:
A. The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B. The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C. The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D. The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level - ANSWER: A. The demonstrated
ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
1. A patient's nutritional intake and laboratory results reflect hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to
prescribing because:
1. Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected.
2. The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption.
3. There will be less free drug available to generate an effect.
4. Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidneys. - ANSWER: 1. Distribution of drugs to
target tissue may be affected.
2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
1. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
2. Bypass the hepatic circulation
,3. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
4. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms - ANSWER: 3. Are rapidly
metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be the:
1. Kidneys
2. Lungs
3. Bile and feces
4. Skin - ANSWER: 2. Lungs
4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed intramuscularly (IM) to create a storage
reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
1. Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
2. Are the reason for giving loading doses
3. Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
4. Are most common in collagen tissues - ANSWER: 3. Increase the length of time a drug is available
and active
5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug's:
1. Propensity to go to the target receptor
2. Biological half-life
3. Pharmacodynamics
4. Safety and side effects - ANSWER: 2. Biological half-life
6. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day's dosage be twice those of the other 4 days of the
prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
1. Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
2. Requires four- to five-half-lives to attain
3. Is influenced by renal function
4. Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues - ANSWER: 1. Rapidly achieves drug
levels in the therapeutic range
The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is
the:
1. Minimum adverse effect level
2. Peak of action
3. Onset of action
4. Therapeutic range - ANSWER: 3. Onset of action
8. Phenytoin requires that a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
1. When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
2. When the drug will be administered for a short time only
3. When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
4. To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range - ANSWER: 4. To determine if a drug is in the
therapeutic range
9. A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic
concentration. This means that the:
1. Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
2. Concentration will produce an adverse response
3. Time between doses must be shortened
4. Duration of action of the drug is too long - ANSWER: 2. Concentration will produce an adverse
response
10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
1. Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
2. Upregulation with chronic use
,3. Desensitization or downregulation with continuous use
4. Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action - ANSWER: 3. Desensitization or
downregulation with continuous use
11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
1. Downregulation of the drug receptor
2. An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
3. Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
4. An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists - ANSWER: 2. An exaggerated response if
abruptly discontinued
12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
1. Liver enzyme activity
2. Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
3. Lipid solubility of the drug
4. Ability to chew and swallow - ANSWER: 3. Lipid solubility of the drug
13. Drugs administered via IV:
1. Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily
absorbed
2. Begin distribution into the body immediately
3. Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
4. May use pinocytosis to be absorbed - ANSWER: 2. Begin distribution into the body immediately
14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs
is:
1. The sum of the effects of each drug individually
2. Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
3. Less than the effect of each drug individually
4. Not predictable, as it varies with each individual - ANSWER: 2. Greater than the sum of the effects
of each drug individually
15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
1. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or
sustained-release mechanisms.
2. All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
3. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given
once daily.
4. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability. - ANSWER: 1.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained-
release mechanisms.
16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-
placental) is true?
1. Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
2. The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
3. The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
4. Lipid-soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women. - ANSWER: 2. The
blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via phase I or phase II reactions. The purpose of both of
these types of reactions is to:
1. Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
2. Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
3. Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
4. Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion - ANSWER: 3. Change drug
molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
, 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
1. More active than the parent drug
2. Less active than the parent drug
3. Totally "deactivated" so they are excreted without any effect
4. All of the above - ANSWER: 4. All of the above
19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to
excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
1. Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
2. Chronic renal disease
3. Competition for a transport site by another drug
4. Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins - ANSWER: 4. Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from
plasma proteins
20. Steady state is:
1. The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
2. When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
3. When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration
4. All of the above - ANSWER: 2. When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
21. Two different pain medications are given together for pain relief. The drug—drug interaction is:
1. Synergistic
2. Antagonistic
3. Potentiative
4. Additive - ANSWER: 4. Additive
22. Actions taken to reduce drug—drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Reducing the dosage of one of the drugs
2. Scheduling their administration at different times
3. Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
4. Reducing the dosage of both drugs - ANSWER: 3. Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse
reaction of the combination
Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which
of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
1. Protein malnutrition
2. Iron-deficiency anemia
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2 - ANSWER: 4. Neither 1 nor 2
The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
1. Steady state
2. Half-life
3. Phase II metabolism
4. Reduced bioavailability time - ANSWER: 2. Half-life
An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time, the body
may:
1. Upregulate the total number of receptors
2. Block the receptor with a partial agonist
3. Alter the drug's metabolism
4. Downregulate the numbers of that specific receptor - ANSWER: 4. Downregulate the numbers of
that specific receptor
Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
1. Leads to major physiological and psychological dependence
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