Naplex/cpje vs mpje Tests Compilation Bundle

Texas pharmacist can administer all vaccines - True What age can pharmacist administer influenza - 7 What is the min age for all other vaccines - 14 How many hours for nuclear tra ining - 700 hours State board is made up of how many members - 11 How many pharmacists are on the state board - 7 How ma...

Neither _____ nor _____ are required by an *ANDA*. - -pre-clinical animal studies -clinical studies *bioequivalence only Prescription drug advertising is regulated by the _____, while OTC dru g advertising is regulated by the _____. - -FDA -FTC (Federal Trade Commission) Any false or misleading stat...

how many compliance officers/inspectors does VA BOP have? - 9 - 5 pharmacist inspectors assigned to inspect pharmacies, 4 non-pharmacist inspectors assigned to inspect other facilities license d by the BOP how many pharmacist members are there on VA BOP? public members? - -8 pharmacist -2 public do ...

What did the Federal Controlled Substances Act do? Why was it implemented? - Legislators very concerned in the 1960s about legal and illegal drugs being abused They were given the opportunity to design an act/law Created the DEA to promulgate and enforce the law Created a closed system between: manu...

Form to send to DEA for destroying controls - DEA Form 41 Controlled substance theft/loss form? - DEA Form 106. Must also be sent to DPR. Doesn't define what you have to report; err on t he side of caution! How long to send in theft/loss form? - 1 business day Do you need to report pseudophedrine a...

What did the FDCA of 1938 accomplish? - Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act 1) Drugs must be safe prior to marketing 2) Established the FDA - Food, Drug, Cosmetic, Medical device safety Durham-Humph rey Amendment of 1951 - • Created a distinction between "OTC" and "Legend Drugs/Prescription". • Aut...

which agencies are in charge of enforcing the Illinois controlled substance act Correct Answer: department of human services offices of alcoholism and substance abuse Department of financial and professional regulation are controlled substances regulated by federal or state laws Correct Answer...

what law prohibits the distribution of food and drugs that are misbranded or adulterated? Correct Answer: Pure Food and Drug Act What is the system that can be used as an electronic substitute for DEA Form 222 when ordering Schedule II controlled substances? Correct Answer: Controlled Substance...

Form ____ is to register as a new pharmacy. Correct Answer: 224 Form ___ is required to renew DEA registry for a given pharmacy. Correct Answer: 224a Form ___ is to renew DEA registry for a chain of pharmacies. Correct Answer: 224b Form ____ is for the transfer of C-II substances Correct...

Another name for Enbrel a) Efavirenz b) Etanercept c) Eptifbatide d) Enfurvitide e) Entidronate correct answer: Etanercept A patient asks the pharmacist about a severe hangover from drinking vodka last night. He awakened with heartburn, nausea, tremor, dizziness, fatigue, body aches, head...

How is nitroglycerin stored? correct answer: - Non-PVC containers. - glass How often are clonidine patches replaced? correct answer: Once a week Dose of clonidine patches? correct answer: 0.1 mg/24h. Notice that the dose is in respect to 24 hours while patches are replaced once a week. Fin...

Beta 1 selective beta blockers correct answer: AMEBBA Atenolol Metoprolol - mortality benefit in HF Esmolol Bisoprolol - mortality benefit in HF Betaxolol Acebutolol ISA beta blockers correct answer: CAPP Carteolol Acebutolol Penbutolol Pindolol Non-selective beta blockers with a...

How to treat someone with <200 CD4 count and a PCP or MAC infection who has just started HAART? correct answer: 1. Treat infection 2. Steroids may be used in some situations 3. Continue HAART (but for other opportunistic infections you would stop HAART until the infection is treated because of...

anti-emetic regimen for highly emetogenic chemotherapy correct answer: fosapretant + dexmethasone + ondansetron + olanzapine 3 or 4 drug regimen NK1-RA + 5HT3- RA + dexmethasone + olanzapine nadir correct answer: lowest point that WBS and platelets reach in chemo usually occurs 7-14 ...

How long do you have to wait to give an antibody-containing product if the pt recently received a live vaccine correct answer: 2 weeks (incubation period for it to replicate) How long do you have to wait to give a live vaccine if the pt recently received an antibody containing product correct an...

If the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? A. pH 5 B. pH 2.5 C. pH 1.5 D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? A. Fick's Law B. Henderson-Ha...

HTN definition correct answer: SBP >140 DBP >90 What drugs can cause HTN? correct answer: NSAIDs, steroids, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sibutramine, estrogens, EPO, venlafaxine, sympathomimetics, cocaine Pre-HTN is.... correct answer: SBP 120-139 DBP 80-89 Stage I HTN is... correct...

this act established a record keeping requirement for the receipt and dispensing of opium or coca leaf products.....the possession of narcotics without a prescription became illegal correct answer: 1914: harrison narcotic act the sulfanilamide disaster lead to this act's passage correct answer:...

ss correct answer: one half ac correct answer: before meals pc correct answer: after meals gtt, gtts correct answer: drops au correct answer: each ear as correct answer: left ear ad correct answer: right ear ATC correct answer: around the clock biw correct answer: tw...

Which antipsychotics are available in ODT formulations? (5) correct answer: - Mirtazapine (Remeron SolTab) - Aripiprazole - Clozapine - Risperidone (Risperdal M-TAB) - Olanzapine (Zyprexa) (MACRO) How do you counsel a patient on how to use Albuterol MDI or Flovent HFA inhalers? correc...

T or F. Beyond use date must be applied to each compounded product using USP 795 guidelines for Nonaqueous Liquids and Solid formulation and for Water-containing Formulations. correct answer: True Which of the following is considered with Non-Sterile Preparation? A. USP 795 B. USP 797 correct an...

Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax - Antiviral: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase thereby preventing replication Adalimumab correct answer: Humira - TNF Inhibitor; MAB: An IgG monoclonal antibody against the cytokine (proinflammatory) TNF alpha Adapalene correct answer: Differin - Reti...

Abacavir correct answer: Ziagen abacavir/lamivudine correct answer: Epzicom Acetaminophen correct answer: Tylenol Acetaminophen/Codeine correct answer: Tylenol #3 Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax Adapalene correct answer: Differin Albuterol correct answer: ProAir HFA, Prove...

If the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? A. pH 5 B. pH 2.5 C. pH 1.5 D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? A. Fick's Law B. Henderson-Ha...

Muscarinic Agonist correct answer: Increase SLUDD Ex. Pilocarpine, bethanechol Muscarinic Antagonist correct answer: Decrease SLUDD Ex. Ateopine, Oxybutynin Alpha-1 Agonist correct answer: Increase vasoconstriction, BP Ex. Phenylephrine, dopamine (dose-dependent) Alpha-1 Antagonist co...

HTN ranges 1. normal 2. elevated 3. HTN stage 1 4. HTN stage 2 correct answer: 1. normal <120/80 2. elevated 120-129/<80 3. HTN stage 1: 130-139/80-89 4. HTN stage 2: >140/90 blood pressure monitoring 1. Dos 2. Don't correct answer: 1. Do - go to the restroom and empty the ...

Dissociation factor (i) for 1 dissociated ion correct answer: 1 Dissociation factor (i) for 2 dissociated ions correct answer: 1.8 Dissociation factor (i) for 3 dissociated ions correct answer: 2.6 Dissociation factor (i) for 4 dissociated ions correct answer: 3.4 Dissociation factor...

Vancomycin MOA correct answer: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan polyemerization by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall precursor Vancomycin type of killing correct answer: Time-dependent Bactericidal Vancomycin coverage correct answer: mos...

Live vaccines MMR, varicella, LAIV, rotavirus How often may saliva substitutes be used? As often as needed, no age restrictions Rozeram SE Ramelteon: risk of worsening depression Which of the following requires antihistamines and dexamethasone premedication to minimize risk of hypersensitivity...

Drugs to decrease when using amiodarone (ami will ^ conc) correct answer: digoxin, warfarin, quinidine, procainamide 1A2 inducers correct answer: PS PORES, E is for estrogen. (Phenytoin, Smoking, Phenobarbital, Oxcarbazepine, Rifampin (rifabutin, rifapentin), Carbamazepine, St. John's Wort) ...

1 cup = ____ mL correct answer: 236.56 mL 1 pint = ___ mL correct answer: 473mL 1 quart = ___ mL correct answer: 946 mL 1 gallon = ___ mL correct answer: 1 gallon = 3785 mL specific gravity = correct answer: g / mL sg x w/w (%) = w/v (%) ou od os ad au as correct answer: ...

What is the definition of hypertension? correct answer: BP > 140/90 OR Patient requires antihypertensive therapy Chronic uncontrolled HTN can lead to target organ damage. What organs or organ systems are typically affected? correct answer: 1) Cardiac (MI, need for CABG, PCI, left ventricu...

What are the prophylaxis doses of Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: 30mg SQ q12H or 40mg SQ daily (CrCl < 30ml/min use 30mg SQ daily) (Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H) What is the treatment dose for Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H (Prophylaxis doses 30mg SQ q12H or...

How do you convert Aminophylline to Theophylline dosing? correct answer: Aminophylline dose x 0.8= Theophylline dose How do you convert Theophylline to Aminophylline dosing? correct answer: Theophylline dose / 0.8 = Aminophylline dose How many grains are in 81 mg aspirin? correct answer: 1 ...

Common CYP Inhibitors correct answer: G: Grapefruit Pacman: Protease Inhibitors (ritonavir) Azole antifungals: Fluconazole, ketoconazole, ect. Cyclosporine Macrolides: Clarithromycin, erythromycin, not azith Amiodarone Non-DHP CCBs: Dilt and verap CYP Inducers correct answer: Phenytoin S...

CMEA requires purchasers of scheduled listed chemical products to present a photo ID. Which of the following items is not an acceptable form of identification? correct answer: An employer-based security ID A 76-year-old male with a past medical history of hypertension, myocardial infarction one ...

Which of the following statements concerning use of Precedex in critical care patients is correct? A It can only be used if the patient is intubated. B It can only be used if the patient is also receiving a paralytic. C It will decrease blood pressure. D It is indicated for use up to 7...

PIC can supervise __ pharmacies correct answer: 2 pharmacies within 50 driving miles Change of PIC reported to board within __ days correct answer: 30 days PIC self-assessment every __ years correct answer: 2 years, or within 30 days if new permit/PIC/location PIC self-assessment form ke...

Poison Prevention Packaging Act- place ORAL (only) Rx meds in child-resistant safety containers. What are the exceptions? correct answer: - Nitroglycerin SL tab - Erythromycin ethylsuccinate granules for oral suspension - colestipol powder (Colestid- BAS) - oral contraceptives in manufacturer'...

An underserved location is one that does not have a pharmacy within ______ (distance). 10 miles Supervising pharmacy and the remote site must be within _____ (distance) of each other 150 miles In telepharmacies, controlled substances must be stored separately. All management of controlled substa...

Acetazolamide Diamox MOA- Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor sun protection and hydration are recommended - for Altitude sickness and motion sickness --> 125 mg BID - CI: sulfa allergy Sevelamer - Renvela (carbonate) or Renagel (HCl) - CI: Bowel obstruction - Indication: hyperphosphatemia in C...

Hospital Drug Supply Inspection correct answer: Every 30 days by pharmacist, intern, tech - Includes ADDS, fridge, freezer, emergency supply stock - Report irregularities w/in 24hrs to PIC and director or CEO *Keep records for 3 years Name tags for pharmacy personnel need to include what i...

Tylenol (I,D,Overdose) Acetaminophen I: fever/pain D: 325-650mg, max < 4000mg/day from all sources *OD = liver damage, use NAC for antidote Ofirmev (IV) (I,D,Overdose) Acetaminophen I: fever/pain D: < 4000mg/day from all sources *Can treat more severe pain *OD = liver damage, use NAC...

Name tags correct answer: 1. 18 point font 2. worn at all times *at work* 3. State: Name and License Status PIC correct answer: 1. strict liability for violation of laws 2. may supervise up to *2* pharmacies 3. the 2 pharmacies MUST be w/in *50 driving miles* 4. any change of PIC must let ...

Voltaren correct answer: diclofenac sodium (oral, gel) Toradol, Sprix NS correct answer: Ketorolac Tromethamine - NSAID Very high risk of GI bleed, 5 days max therapy. CV and renal risks. Indocin correct answer: indomethacin - NSAID analgesic /arthritis/ pain Clinoril correct ...

Rheumatoid arthritis: IV correct answer: Return the Bat InTo the Goal Rituximab Abatacept Infliximab Tocilizumab Golimumab Rheumatoid arthritis: Biological DMARD storage correct answer: Refrigerate Rheumatoid arthritis: Dosing - Every other week (zumba/mumba) correct answer: - Ada...

Tylenol #2, 3, 4 correct answer: APAP/codeine (300-15, 30, 60 mg) CIII Calquence correct answer: acalbrutinib for Mantle cell lymphoma / CLL Zovirax correct answer: Acyclovir ProAir HFA, ProAir Respiclick, Proventil HFA, Ventolin HFA correct answer: Albuterol Combivent Respimat corre...

BP correct answer: everybody <140/90 if healthy >_60 150/90 heart <130/80 BP correct answer: blacks: thiazides/ccbs kidney problems: acei/arb (not if dialysis or no more kidney function) BP correct answer: titrate up after 1 month or add 2/3rd drug should try to reach target wi...

What schedule drugs require one-inch red "C" on the lower right corner of a prescription when the hardcopy for the controlled substance is integrated into the nonscheduled drug prescription files? correct answer: Schedule III, IV, V What is required when dispensing a drug with an estrogenic co...

acetaminophen correct answer: APAP/Tylenol/Ofirmev PO, IV(undiluted), PR Fever and pain MOA: Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and hypothalamic heat-regulating center SE: Not common; IV-GI, increase LFTs Stor/Stab: IV-room temp, use w/n 6hrs N-acetylcysteine correct answer: NAC/Acetadote/...

APAP, Tylenol (PO) Ofirmev (IV) correct answer: Acetaminophen - Analgesic/Anti-pyretic (no anti-inflammatory or anti-platelet properties) NAC correct answer: N-Acetylcysteine - APAP toxicity antidone Aspirin correct answer: Acetylsalicylic acid - NSAID Motrin, Advil (PO) Caldolor (IV)...

flexeril correct answer: cyclobenzaprine muscle relaxant 5 - 10mg TID prn xerostomia, serotonergic, careful heart dx lioresal correct answer: baclofen muscle relaxant 5-20mg tid - qid prn avoid abrupt withdrawal robaxin correct answer: methocarbamol muscle relaxant 1.5g - 2g qid prn...

Within how many days must the board be notified of a change of pharmacy ownership correct answer: 30 days Within how many days must the board be notified of a change of the pharmacist-in-charge correct answer: 30 days Within how many days must the board be notified in the case of a bankruptc...

flexeril correct answer: cyclobenzaprine muscle relaxant 5 - 10mg TID prn xerostomia, serotonergic, careful heart dx lioresal correct answer: baclofen muscle relaxant 5-20mg tid - qid prn avoid abrupt withdrawal robaxin correct answer: methocarbamol muscle relaxant 1.5g - 2g qid prn...

Renal Disease correct answer: Common Causes -*DM* -*HTN* AKI -*sudden* loss of kidney function -commonly caused by *dehyration* -*BUN:SCr ration > 20:1* CKD -*progressive* loss of kidney function -*GFR or CrCl* < 60 -*albuminurua * > 30 or more albumin spilling into urine -...

Washington MPJE| 307 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS