NUR 3463 (exam 2) ADULT HEALTH ACUTE CARE | GRADED A | QUESTIONS AND ANSWER KEY PROVIDED

NUR 3463 (exam 2) ADULT HEALTH ACUTE CARE | GRADED A | QUESTIONS AND ANSWER KEY PROVIDED Chapter 21 cancer development. 1. The nurse is giving a group presentation on cancer prevention and reco gnition. Which statement by an older adult client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions? A "Cigarette smoking always causes lung cancer." B "Taking multivitamins will prevent me from developing cancer." C "If I have only one shot of whiskey a day, I probably will not develop cancer." D "I need to report the pain going down my legs to my health care provider." ANS: D Pain in the back of the legs could indicate prostate cancer in an older man. Cigarette smoking is implicated in causing lung cancer and other types of cancer, but it does not always cause cancer. Investigation is ongoing about the efficacy of vitamins A and C in cancer prevention. Limiting alcohol to one drink per day is only one preventive measure. 2. The nurse is teaching a 47-year-old woman about recommended screening practices for breast cancer. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions? A "My mother and grandmother had breast cancer, so I am at risk." B "I get a mammogram every 2 years since I turned 30." C "A clinical breast examination is performed every month since I turned 40." D "A computed tomography (CT) scan will be done every year after I turn 50." ANS: A A strong family history of breast cancer indicates a risk for breast cancer. Annual rather than biannual screening may be indicated for a strong family history. An annual mammogram is performed after age 40 or in younger clients with a strong family history. The client may perform a self-breast examination monthly; a clinical examination by a health care provider is indicated annually. Annual CT breast scans after age 50 are not a current recommendation. 3. A 72-year-old client recovering from lung cancer surgery asks the nurse to explain how she developed cancer when she has never smoked. Which factor may explain the possible cause? A A diagnosis of diabetes treated with insulin and diet B An exercise regimen of jogging 3 miles four times a week C A history of cardiac disease D Advancing age ANS: D Advancing age is the single most important risk factor for cancer. As a person ages, immune protection decreases. Diabetes is not known to cause lung cancer. Regular exercise is not a risk factor for lung cancer, nor does having cardiac disease predispose a person to lung cancer. 4. The nurse reviews the chart of a client admitted with a diagnosis of glioblastoma with a T1NXM0 classification. Which explanation does the nurse offer when the client asks what the terminology means? A "Two lymph nodes are involved in this tumor of the glial cells, and another tumor is present." B "The brain tumor measures about 1 to 2 cm and shows no regional lymph nodes and no distant metastasis." C "This type of tumor in the brain is small with some lymph node involvement; another tumor is present somewhere else in your body." D "Glioma means this tumor is benign, so I will have to ask your health care provider the reason for the chemotherapy and radiation." ANS: B T1 means that the tumor is increasing in size to about 2 cm, and that no regional lymph nodes are present in the brain. M0 means that no distant metastasis has occurred. NX means that no regional lymph nodes can be assessed. A glioma is a benign tumor of the brain, but the client is diagnosed with a glioblastoma, which means a malignant tumor of the glial cells of the brain. 5. The nurse manager in a long-term care facility is developing a plan for primary and secondary prevention of colorectal cancer. Which tasks associated with the screening plan will be delegated to nursing assistants within the facility? A Testing of stool specimens for occult blood B Teaching about the importance of dietary fiber C Referring clients for colonoscopy procedures D Giving vitamin and mineral supplements ANS: A Testing of stool specimens for occult blood is done according to a standardized protocol and can be delegated to nursing assistants. Client education is within the scope of practice of the RN, not of the LPN or nursing assistant. Referral for further care is best performed by the RN. Administration of medications is beyond the nursing assistant's scope of practice and should be done by licensed nursing personnel. 6. The nurse presents a cancer prevention program to teens. Which instruction will have the greatest impact in cancer prevention? A Avoid asbestos. B Wear sunscreen. C Get the human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine. D Do not smoke cigarettes. ANS: D All of these actions are part of cancer prevention; however, tobacco is the single most important source of preventable carcinogenesis. Asbestos may be found in older homes and buildings. Most schools have been through an asbestos abatement program so should not pose a risk. It would be important to share with teens who may be involved in the construction industry during the summer to be aware of asbestos risks. Although asbestos may present a risk for lung cancer, it is not a likely exposure for teens. Lifetime exposure to the sun and the use of tanning beds will increase the risk for cancer, but not as much as tobacco use. The HPV vaccine will decrease the risk for cervical cancer, but will not have as much of an impact on cancer prevention as avoiding tobacco. 7. The nurse suspects metastasis from left breast cancer to the thoracic spine when the client has which symptom? A Vomiting B Back pain C Frequent urination D Cyanosis of the toes ANS: B Typical sites of breast cancer metastasis include bone (manifested by back pain), lung, liver, and brain. Signs of metastasis to the spine may include numbness, pain, paresthesias and tingling, and loss of bowel and bladder control, but not vomiting. Although frequent urination may be a sign of bladder cancer, incontinence is more indicative of spinal metastasis. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased tissue perfusion, often related to atherosclerotic disease. 8. The nurse explains to a client that which risk factor of those listed most likely contributed to the client's primary liver carcinoma? A Infection with hepatitis B virus B Consuming a diet high in animal fat C Exposure to radon D Familial polyposis ANS: A Hepatitis B and C are risk factors for primary liver cancer. Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for the development of liver cancer. Consuming a diet high in animal fat may predispose a person to colon or breast cancer. Exposure to radon is a risk factor for lung cancer. Familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer. 9. Which type of cancer has been associated with Down syndrome? A Breast cancer B Colorectal cancer C Malignant melanoma D Leukemia ANS: D Leukemia is associated with Down syndrome and Turner syndrome. Breast cancer is often found clustered in families, not in association with Down syndrome. Colorectal cancer is associated with familial polyposis. Malignant melanoma is associated with familial clustering and sun exposure. 10. The nurse is assessing a client with lung cancer. Which symptom does the nurse anticipate finding? A Easy bruising B Dyspnea C Night sweats D Chest wound ANS: B Dyspnea is a sign of lung cancer, as are cough, hoarseness, shortness of breath, bloody sputum, arm or chest pain, and dysphagia. Easy bruising is a nonspecific finding. Night sweats is a symptom of the lymphomas. A chest wound is not specific to lung cancer. 11. Which activity performed by the community health nurse best reflects primary prevention of cancer? A Assisting women to obtain free mammograms B Teaching a class on cancer prevention C Encouraging long-term smokers to get a chest x-ray D Encouraging sexually active women to get annual Papanicolaou (Pap) smears ANS: B Primary prevention involves avoiding exposure to known causes of cancer; education assists clients with this strategy. Mammography is part of a secondary level of prevention, defined as screening for early detection. Chest x-ray is a method of detecting a cancer that is present—secondary prevention and early detection. A Pap smear is a means of detecting cervical cancer early—secondary prevention. 12. A 52-year-old client relates to the nurse that she has never had a mammogram because she is terrified that she will have cancer. Which response by the nurse is therapeutic? A "Don't worry, most lumps are discovered by women during breast self-examination." B "Does anyone in your family have breast cancer?" C "Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the chance for cure." D "Have you noticed a lump or thickening in your breast?" ANS: C Providing truthful information addresses the client's concerns. Mammography can detect lumps smaller than those discovered by palpation. Asking about family history or symptoms is not therapeutic because it does not address the client's fear of cancer. 13. Which information must the organ transplant nurse emphasize before a client is discharged? A "Taking immunosuppressant medications increases your risk for cancer and the need for screenings." B "You are at increased risk for cancer when you reach 60 years of age." C "Immunosuppressant medications will decrease your risk for developing cancers." D "After 6 months, you may stop immunosuppressant medications, and your risk for cancer will be the same as that of the general population." ANS: A Use of immunosuppressant medications to prevent organ rejection increases the risk for cancer. Advanced age is a risk factor for all people, not just for organ transplant recipients. Immunosuppressant medications must be taken for the life of the organ; the risk for developing cancer remains. 14. The home health nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a kidney transplant and takes cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and prednisone (Deltasone) to prevent rejection. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the transplant team? A Temperature of 96.6° F B Reports of joint pain C Pink and dry oral mucosa D Palpable lump in the client's axilla ANS: D Clients taking immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection are at increased risk for the development of cancer; any lump should be reported to the physician. Fever should be reported to the physician, but this client's temperature is normal. It is not necessary to report joint pain to the transplant team; it is not a sign of rejection and is not a complication of transplant. A pink and dry oral mucosa may be a sign of dehydration, but it is not necessary to report this to the transplant team. 15. A client who is scheduled to undergo radiation for prostate cancer is admitted to the hospital by the nurse. Which statement by the client is most important to communicate to the health care provider? A "I am allergic to iodine." B "My urinary stream is very weak." C "My legs are numb and weak." D "I am incontinent when I cough." ANS: C Numbness and weakness should be reported to the physician because paralysis caused by spinal cord compression can occur. Prostate cancer may frequently metastasize to the bone, specifically the spine. Allergy to iodine should be reported when contrast media will be used, but dye is not used in radiation therapy. A weak urinary stream and incontinence are common clinical manifestations of prostate cancer. Incontinence associated with coughing is typical of stress incontinence and is not a complication of cancer. 16. When the nurse is counseling a 60-year-old African-American male client with all of these risk factors for lung cancer, teaching should focus most on which risk factor? A Tobacco use B Ethnicity C Gender D Increased age ANS: A Although all of these are risk factors for lung cancer, the client's tobacco use is the only factor that he can change. Ethnicity, gender, and increasing age are associated with lung cancer, but they are not modifiable risks. 17. Which statement about the process of malignant transformation is correct? A Mutation of genes is an irreversible event that always leads to cancer development in the initiation phase. B Insulin and estrogen enhance the division of an initiated cell during the promotion phase. C Tumors form when carcinogens invade the gene structure of the cell in the latency phase. D Nutrition of cancer cells is provided by tumor angiogenesis factor (TAF) in the promotion stage. ANS: D The promotion phase consists of progression when the blood supply changes from diffusion to TAF.Insulin and estrogen increase cell division. If cell division is halted, mutation of genes does not lead to cancer development in the initiation phase. In the initiation phase, carcinogens invade the DNA of the nucleus of a single cell. A 1-cm tumor consists of 1 billion cells. The latency phase occurs between initiation and tumor formation. 18. A client has a glioblastoma. The nurse begins to plan care for this client with which type of cancer? A Liver B Smooth muscle C Fatty tissue D Brain ANS: D The prefix "glio-" is used when cancers of the brain are named. The prefix "hepato-" is included when cancers of the liver are named. The prefix "leiomyo-" is included when cancers of smooth muscle are named. The prefix "lipo-" is included when cancers of fat or adipose tissue are named. 19. A client has a diagnosis of lung cancer. To which areas does the nurse anticipate that this client's tumor may metastasize? (Select all that apply.) A Brain B Bone C Lymph nodes D Kidneys E Liver ANS: A, B, C, E Typical sites of metastasis of lung cancer include the brain, bone, liver, lymph nodes, and pancreas. Kidneys are not a typical site of lung cancer metastasis. 20. The nurse is conducting a community health education class on diet and cancer risk reduction. What should be included in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) A Limit sodium intake. B Avoid beef and processed meats. C Increase consumption of whole grains. D Eat "colorful fruits and vegetables," including greens. E Avoid gas-producing vegetables such as cabbage. ANS: B, C, D Consuming bran and whole grains and avoiding red meat and processed foods such as lunchmeats can reduce cancer risk. Consuming foods high in vitamin A, including apricots, carrots, and leafy green and yellow vegetables, can also reduce cancer risk. Reducing sodium is helpful in the treatment of hypertension and heart and kidney failure; no evidence suggests that lowering of sodium intake decreases the incidence of cancer. Eating cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli, cauliflower, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage may actually reduce cancer risk. 21. What are the common cancers related to tobacco use? (Select all that apply.) A Cardiac cancer B Lung cancer C Cancer of the tongue D Skin cancer E Cancer of the larynx ANS: B, C, E Organs exposed to the carcinogens in tobacco (lungs, tongue, larynx) are the most likely to develop cancer. Oral cancer is also a risk with "smokeless" tobacco. The heart does not contain cells that divide; therefore, cardiac cancer is unlikely. Skin cancer generally is related to repeated sun and other ultraviolet exposure, such as that found with tanning beds. 22. The nurse includes which factors in teaching regarding the typical warning signs of cancer? (Select all that apply.) A Persistent constipation B Scab present for 6 months C Curdlike vaginal discharge D Axillary swelling E Headache ANS: A, B, D Change in bowel habits, a sore that does not heal, and a lump or thickening in the breast or elsewhere are all potential warning signs of cancer. Curdlike vaginal discharge represents a yeast infection. Headache is not a warning sign, but may be present with multiple problems. Chapter 25: pt’s with skin problem A nurse teaches a client who has very dry skin. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's education? a. "Use lots of moisturizer several times a day to minimize dryness." b. "Take a cold shower instead of soaking in the bathtub." c. "Use antimicrobial soap to avoid infection of cracked skin." d. "After you bathe, put lotion on before your skin is totally dry." ANS: D The client should bathe in warm water for at least 20 minutes and then apply lotion immediately because this will keep the moisture in the skin. Just using moisturizer will not be as helpful because the moisturizer is not what rehydrates the skin; it is the water. Bathing in warm water will rehydrate skin more effectively than a cold shower, and antimicrobial soaps are actually more drying than other kinds of soap. A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for pressure ulcer development? a.A 44-year-old prescribed IV antibiotics for pneumonia b.A 26-year-old who is bedridden with a fractured leg c.A 65-year-old with hemi-paralysis and incontinence d.A 78-year-old requiring assistance to ambulate with a walker ANS: C Being immobile and being incontinent are two significant risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers. The client with pneumonia does not have specific risk factors. The young client who has a fractured leg and the client who needs assistance with ambulation might be at moderate risk if they do not move about much, but having two risk factors makes the 65-year-old the person at highest risk. When transferring a client into a chair, a nurse notices that the pressure-relieving mattress overlay has deep imprints of the client's buttocks, heels, and scapulae. Which action should the nurse take next? a.Turn the mattress overlay to the opposite side. b.Do nothing because this is an expected occurrence. c.Apply a different pressure-relieving device. d.Reinforce the overlay with extra cushions. ANS: C "Bottoming out," as evidenced by deep imprints in the mattress overlay, indicates that this device is not appropriate for this client, and a different device or strategy should be implemented to prevent pressure ulcer formation. A nurse cares for a client who has a deep wound that is being treated with a wet-to- damp dressing. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a.Change the dressing every 6 hours. b.Assess the wound bed once a day. c.Change the dressing when it is saturated. d.Contact the provider when the dressing leaks ANS: A Wet-to-damp dressings are changed every 4 to 6 hours to provide maximum débridement. The wound should be assessed each time the dressing is changed. Dry gauze dressings should be changed when the outer layer becomes saturated. Synthetic dressings can be left in place for extended periods of time but need to be changed if the seal breaks and the exudate leaks. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer on the right ankle. Which action should the nurse take first? a.Draw blood for albumin, prealbumin, and total protein. b.Prepare for and assist with obtaining a wound culture. c.Place the client in bed and instruct the client to elevate the foot. d.Assess the right leg for pulses, skin color, and temperature. ANS: D A client with an ulcer on the foot should be assessed for interruption in arterial flow to the area. This begins with the assessment of pulses and color and temperature of the skin. The nurse can also assess for pulses noninvasively with a Doppler flowmeter if unable to palpate with his or her fingers. Tests to determine nutritional status and risk assessment would be completed after the initial assessment is done. Wound cultures are done after it has been determined that drainage, odor, and other risks for infection are present. Elevation of the foot would impair the ability of arterial blood to flow to the area. After educating a caregiver of a home care client, a nurse assesses the caregiver's understanding. Which statement indicates that the caregiver needs additional education? a. "I can help him shift his position every hour when he sits in the chair." b. "If his tailbone is red and tender in the morning, I will massage it with baby oil." c."Applying lotion to his arms and legs every evening will decrease dryness." d."Drinking a nutritional supplement between meals will help maintain his weight." ANS: B Massage of reddened areas over bony prominences such as the coccyx, or tailbone, is contraindicated because the pressure of the massage can cause damage to the skin and subcutaneous tissue layers. The other statements are appropriate for the care of a client at home After teaching a client who is at risk for the formation of pressure ulcers, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary choice by the client indicates a good understanding of the teaching? a.Low-fat diet with whole grains and cereals and vitamin supplements b.High-protein diet with vitamins and mineral supplements c.Vegetarian diet with nutritional supplements and fish oil capsules d.Low-fat, low-cholesterol, high-fiber, low-carbohydrate diet ANS: B The preferred diet is high in protein to assist in wound healing and prevention of new wounds. Fat is also needed to ensure formation of cell membranes, so any of the options with low fat would not be good choices. A vegetarian diet would not provide fat and high levels of protein. A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse evaluate for a wound infection? a.Client with blood cultures pending b.Client who has thin, serous wound drainage c.Client with a white blood cell count of 23,000/mm3 d.Client whose wound has decreased in size ANS: C A client with an elevated white blood cell count should be evaluated for sources of infection. Pending cultures, thin drainage, and a decrease in wound size are not indications that the client may have an infection. A nurse who manages client placements prepares to place four clients on a medical- surgical unit. Which client should be placed in isolation awaiting possible diagnosis of infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA)? a.Client admitted from a nursing home with furuncles and folliculitisb. b. Client with a leg cut and other trauma from a motorcycle crash c.Client with a rash noticed after participating in sporting events d.Client transferred from intensive care with an elevated white blood cell count ANS: A The client in long-term care and other communal environments is at high risk for MRSA. The presence of furuncles and folliculitis is also an indication that MRSA may be present. A client with an open wound from a motorcycle crash would have the potential to develop MRSA, but no signs are visible at present. The rash following participation in a sporting event could be caused by several different things. A client with an elevated white blood cell count has the potential for infection but should be at lower risk for MRSA than the client admitted from the communal environment. After teaching a client how to care for a furuncle in the axilla, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understands the teaching? a. "I'll apply cortisone cream to reduce the inflammation." b. "I'll apply a clean dressing after squeezing out the pus." c. "I'll keep my arm down at my side to prevent spread." d. "I'll cleanse the area prior to applying antibiotic cream." ANS: D Cleansing and topical antibiotics can eliminate the infection. Warm compresses enhance comfort and open the lesion, allowing better penetration of the topical antibiotic. Cortisone cream reduces the inflammatory response but increases the infectious process. Squeezing the lesion may introduce infection to deeper tissues and cause cellulitis. Keeping the arm down increases moisture in the area and promotes bacterial growth. A nurse assesses an older client who is scratching and rubbing white ridges on the skin between the fingers and on the wrists. Which action should the nurse take? a.Place the client in a single room. b.Administer an antihistamine. c.Assess the client's airway. d.Apply gloves to minimize friction. ANS: A The client's presentation is most likely to be scabies, a contagious mite infestation. The client needs to be admitted to a single room and treated for the infestation. Secondary interventions may include medication to decrease the itching. This is not an allergic manifestation; therefore, antihistamine and airway assessments are not indicated. Gloves may decrease skin breakdown but would not address the client's infectious disorder A nurse assesses a client who has a chronic wound. The client states, "I do not clean the wound and change the dressing every day because it costs too much for supplies." How should the nurse respond? a. "You can use tap water instead of sterile saline to clean your wound." b. "If you don't clean the wound properly, you could end up in the hospital." c. "Sterile procedure is necessary to keep this wound from getting infected." d. "Good hand hygiene is the only thing that really matters with wound care." ANS: A For chronic wounds in the home, clean tap water and nonsterile supplies are acceptable and serve as cheaper alternatives to sterile supplies. Of course, if the wound becomes grossly infected, the client may end up in the hospital, but this response does not provide any helpful information. Good handwashing is important, but it is not the only consideration. After teaching a client who has psoriasis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching? a. "At the next family reunion, I'm going to ask my relatives if they have psoriasis." b. "I have to make sure I keep my lesions covered, so I do not spread this to others." c. "I expect that these patches will get smaller when I lie out in the sun." d. "I should continue to use the cortisone ointment as the patches shrink and dry out." ANS: B Psoriasis is not a contagious disorder. The client does not have to worry about spreading the condition to others. It is a condition that has hereditary links, the patches will decrease in size with ultraviolet light exposure, and cortisone ointment should be applied directly to lesions to suppress cell division. A nurse performs a skin screening for a client who has numerous skin lesions. Which lesion does the nurse evaluate first? a.Beige freckles on the backs of both hands b.Irregular blue mole with white specks on the lower leg c.Large cluster of pustules in the right axilla d.Thick, reddened papules covered by white scales ANS: B This mole fits two of the criteria for being cancerous or precancerous: variation of color within one lesion, and an indistinct or irregular border. Melanoma is an invasive malignant disease with the potential for a fatal outcome. Freckles are a benign condition. Pustules could mean an infection, but it is more important to take care of the potentially cancerous lesion first. Psoriasis vulgaris manifests as thick reddened papules covered by white scales. This is a chronic disorder and is not the priority. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed vancomycin (Vancocin) 500 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which action should the nurse take? a.Administer it over 30 minutes using an IV pump. b.Give the client diphenhydramine (Benadryl) before the drug. c.Assess the IV site at least every 2 hours for thrombophlebitis. d.Ensure that the client has increased oral intake during therapy. ANS: C Vancomycin is very irritating to the veins and can easily cause thrombophlebitis. This drug is given over at least 60 minutes; although it can cause histamine release (leading to "red man syndrome"), it is not customary to administer diphenhydramine before starting the infusion. Increasing oral intake is not specific to vancomycin therapy. A nurse assesses a young female client who is prescribed isotretinoin (Accutane). Which question should the nurse ask prior to starting this therapy? a. "Do you spend a great deal of time in the sun?" b. "Have you or any family members ever had skin cancer?" c. "Which method of contraception are you using?" d. "Do you drink alcoholic beverages?" ANS: C Isotretinoin has many side effects. It is a known teratogen and can cause severe birth defects. A pregnancy test is required before therapy is initiated, and strict birth control measures must be used during therapy. Sun exposure, alcohol ingestion, and family history of cancer are contraindications for isotretinoin. A nurse cares for clients who have various skin infections. Which infection is paired with the correct pharmacologic treatment? a.Viral infection - Clindamycin (Cleocin) b.Bacterial infection - Acyclovir (Zovirax) c.Yeast infection - Linezolid (Zyvox) d.Fungal infection - Ketoconazole (Nizoral) ANS: D Ketoconazole is an antifungal. Clindamycin and linezolid are antibiotics. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug. A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has a wound and is prescribed home health care. Which information should the nurse include in the hand-off report to the home health nurse? a.Recent wound assessment, including size and appearance b.Insurance information for billing and coding purposes c.Complete health history and physical assessment findings d.Resources available to the client for wound care supplies ANS: A The hospital nurse should provide details about the wound, including size and appearance and any special wound needs, in a hand-off report to the home health nurse. Insurance information is important to the home health agency and manager, but this is not appropriate during this hand-off report. The nurse should report focused assessment findings instead of a complete health history and physical assessment. The home health nurse should work with the client to identify community resources. A nurse assesses a client who has psoriasis. Which action should the nurse take first? a.Don gloves and an isolation gown. b.Shake the client's hand and introduce self. c.Assess for signs and symptoms of infections. d.Ask the client if she might be pregnant. ANS: B Clients with psoriatic lesions are often self-conscious of their skin. The nurse should first provide direct contact and touch without gloves to establish a good report with the client. Psoriasis is not an infectious disease, nor is it contagious. The nurse would not need to wear gloves or an isolation gown. Obtaining a health history and assessing for an infection and pregnancy should be completed after establishing a report with the client. A nurse assesses a wife who is caring for her husband. She has a Braden Scale score of 9. Which question should the nurse include in this assessment? a. "Do you have a bedpan at home?" b. "How are you coping with providing this care?" c. "What are you doing to prevent pediculosis?" d. "Are you sharing a bed with your husband?" ANS: B A client with a Braden Scale score of 9 is at high risk for skin breakdown and requires moderate to maximum assistance to prevent further breakdown. Family members who care for clients at home may experience a disruption in family routines and added stress. The nurse should assess the wife's feelings and provide support for coping with changes. Asking about the client's toileting practices, prevention of pediculosis, and sleeping arrangements do not provide information about the caregiver's support and coping mechanisms and ability to continue to care for her husband. A nurse assesses a client who has a lesion on the skin that is suspicious for skin cancer, as shown below: Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this client? a.Punch skin biopsy b.Viral cultures c.Wood's lamp examination d.Diascopy ANS: A This lesion is suspicious for skin cancer and a biopsy is needed. A viral culture would not be appropriate. A Wood's lamp examination is used to determine if skin lesions have characteristic color changes. Diascopy eliminates erythema, making skin lesions easier to examine. A nurse evaluates the following data in a client's chart: 66-year-old male with a health history of a cerebral vascular accident and left-side paralysis White blood cell count: 8000/mm3 Prealbumin: 15.2 mg/dL Albumin: 4.2 mg/dL Lymphocyte count: 2000/mm3 Sacral ulcer - 4 cm ´ 2 cm ´ 1.5 cm Based on this information, which action should the nurse take? a.Perform a neuromuscular assessment. b.Request a dietary consult. c.Initiate Contact Precautions. d.Assess the client's vital signs. ANS: B The white blood cell count is not directly related to nutritional status. Albumin, prealbumin, and lymphocyte counts all give information related to nutritional status. The prealbumin count is a more specific indicator of nutritional status than is the albumin count. The albumin and lymphocyte counts given are normal, but the prealbumin count is low. This puts the client at risk for inadequate wound healing, so the nurse should request a dietary consult. The other interventions do not address the information provided. A nurse evaluates the following data in a client's chart: 78-year-old male with a past medical history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a chronic leg wound Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) Sotalol (Betapace) Vacuum-assisted wound closure (VAC) treatment to leg wound Based on this information, which action should the nurse take first? a.Assess the client's vital signs and initiate continuous telemetry monitoring. b.Contact the provider and express concerns related to the wound treatment prescribed. c.Consult the wound care nurse to apply the VAC device. d.Obtain a prescription for a low-fat, high-protein diet with vitamin supplements. ANS: B A client on anticoagulants is not a candidate for VAC because of the incidence of bleeding complications. The health care provider needs this information quickly to plan other therapy for the client's wound. The nurse should contact the wound care nurse after alternative orders for wound care are prescribed. Vital signs and telemetry monitoring is appropriate for a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and should be implemented as routine care for this client. A low-fat, high-protein diet with vitamin supplements will provide the client with necessary nutrients for wound healing but can be implemented after wound care, vital signs, and telemetry monitoring. A nurse manages wound care for clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client wounds are paired with the appropriate treatments? (Select all that apply.) a.Client with a left heel ulcer with slight necrosis - Whirlpool treatments b.Client with an eschar-covered sacral ulcer - Surgical débridement c.Client with a sunburn and erythema - Soaking in warm water for 20 minutes d.Client with urticaria - Wet-to-dry dressing changes every 6 hours e.Client with a sacral ulcer with purulent drainage - Transparent film dressing ANS: A, B Necrotic tissue should be removed so that healing can take place. Whirlpool treatment can gently remove the necrosis. A wound covered with eschar most likely needs surgical débridement. Warm water would not be recommended for a client with erythema. A wet-to-dry dressing and a transparent film dressing are not appropriate for urticaria or pressure ulcers, respectively. A nurse plans care for a client who is immobile. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to prevent pressure sores? (Select all that apply.) a.Place a small pillow between bony surfaces. b.Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. c.Limit fluids and proteins in the diet. d.Use a lift sheet to assist with re-positioning. e.Re-position the client who is in a chair every 2 hours. f.Keep the client's heels off the bed surfaces. g.Use a rubber ring to decrease sacral pressure when up in the chair. ANS: A, D, F A small pillow decreases the risk for pressure between bony prominences, a lift sheet decreases friction and shear, and heels have poor circulation and are at high risk for pressure sores, so they should be kept off hard surfaces. Head-of-the-bed elevation greater than 30 degrees increases pressure on pelvic soft tissues. Fluids and proteins are important for maintaining tissue integrity. Clients should be repositioned every hour while sitting in a chair. A rubber ring impairs capillary blood flow, increasing the risk for a pressure sore. A nurse prepares to admit a client who has herpes zoster. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a.Prepare a room for reverse isolation. b.Assess staff for a history of or vaccination for chickenpox. c.Check the admission orders for analgesia. d.Choose a roommate who also is immune suppressed. e.Ensure that gloves are available in the room. ANS: B, C, E Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by reactivation of the same virus, varicella zoster, in clients who have previously had chickenpox. Anyone who has not had the disease or has not been vaccinated for it is at high risk for getting chickenpox. Herpes zoster is very painful and requires analgesia. Use of gloves and good handwashing are sufficient to prevent spread. It is best to put this client in a private room. Herpes zoster is a disease of immune suppression, so no one who is immune-suppressed should be in the same room. A nurse cares for older adult clients in a long-term acute care facility. Which interventions should the nurse implement to prevent skin breakdown in these clients? (Select all that apply.) a.Use a lift sheet when moving the client in bed. b.Avoid tape when applying dressings. c.Avoid whirlpool therapy. d.Use loose dressing on all wounds. e.Implement pressure-relieving devices. ANS: A, B, E Using a lift sheet will prevent shearing forces from tearing skin. Tape should be avoided so that the skin won't tear. Using pressure-relieving devices for clients who are at risk for pressure ulcer formation, including older adults, is a proactive approach to prevent skin breakdown. No contraindication to using whirlpool therapy for the older client is known. Dressings should be applied as prescribed, not so loose that they do not provide required treatment, and not so tight that they decrease blood flow to tissues. A nurse assesses a client who presents with an increase in psoriatic lesions. Which questions should the nurse ask to identify a possible trigger for worsening of this client's psoriatic lesions? (Select all that apply.) a. "Have you eaten a large amount of chocolate lately?" b. "Have you been under a lot of stress lately?" c. "Have you recently used a public shower?" d. "Have you been out of the country recently?" e. "Have you recently had any other health problems?" f. "Have you changed any medications recently?" ANS: B, E, F Systemic factors, hormonal changes, psychological stress, medications, and general health factors can aggravate psoriasis. Psoriatic lesions are not triggered by chocolate, public showers, or international travel. A nurse delegates care for a client who has open skin lesions. Which statements should the nurse include when delegating this client's hygiene care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands before touching the client." b. "Wear gloves when bathing the client." c. "Assess skin for breakdown during the bath." d. "Apply lotion to lesions while the skin is wet." e. "Use a damp cloth to scrub the lesions" ANS: A, B All health care providers should follow Standard Precautions when caring for clients who have any open skin areas. This includes hand hygiene and wearing gloves when in contact with the lesions. The UAP is not qualified to assess the client's skin. The other statements are not appropriate for the care of open skin lesions. A nurse cares for a client who reports pain related to eczematous dermatitis. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measures should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a.Cool, moist compresses b.Topical corticosteroids c.Heating pad d.Tepid bath with cornstarch e.Back rub with baby oil ANS: A, D For a client with eczematous dermatitis, the goal of comfort measures is to decrease inflammation and help débride crusts and scales. The nurse should implement cool, moist compresses and tepid baths with additives such as cornstarch. Topical corticosteroids are a pharmacologic intervention. A heating pad and a back rub with baby oil are not appropriate for this client and could increase inflammation and discomfort. Chapeter 20 A nurse works in an allergy clinic. What task performed by the nurse takes priority? a. Checking emergency equipment each morning b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained as needed c. Providing educational materials in several languages d. Teaching clients how to manage their allergies ANS: A All actions are appropriate for this nurse; however, client safety is the priority. The nurse should ensure that emergency equipment is available and in good working order and that sufficient supplies of emergency medications are on hand as the priority responsibility. When it is appropriate for a client to give informed consent, the nurse ensures the signed forms are on the chart. Providing educational materials in several languages is consistent with holistic care. Teaching is always a major responsibility of all nurses. A client is in the preoperative holding area prior to surgery. The nurse notes that the client has allergies to avocados and strawberries. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess that the client has been NPO as directed. b. Communicate this information with dietary staff. c. Document the information in the client's chart. d. Ensure the information is relayed to the surgical team. ANS: D A client with allergies to avocados, strawberries, bananas, or nuts has a higher risk of latex allergy. The nurse should ensure that the surgical staff is aware of this so they can provide a latex-free environment. Ensuring the client's NPO status is important for a client having surgery but is not directly related to the risk of latex allergy. Dietary allergies will be communicated when a diet order is placed. Documentation should be thorough but does not take priority. The nurse is caring for clients on the medical-surgical unit. What action by the nurse will help prevent a client from having a type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Administering steroids for severe serum sickness b. Correctly identifying the client prior to a blood transfusion c. Keeping the client free of the offending agent d. Providing a latex-free environment for the client ANS: B A classic example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction is a blood transfusion reaction. These can be prevented by correctly identifying the client and cross-checking the unit of blood to be administered. Serum sickness is a type III reaction. Avoidance therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for a type IV hypersensitivity. Latex allergies are a type I hypersensitivity A nurse suspects a client has serum sickness. What laboratory result would the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Blood urea nitrogen: 12 mg/dL b. Creatinine: 3.2 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 8.2 mg/dL d. White blood cell count: 12,000/mm3 ANS: B The creatinine is high, possibly indicating the client has serum sickness nephritis. Blood urea nitrogen and white blood cell count are both normal. Hemoglobin is not related. A client calls the clinic to report exposure to poison ivy and an itchy rash that is not helped with over-the-counter antihistamines. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Antihistamines do not help poison ivy." b. "There are different antihistamines to try." c. "You should be seen in the clinic right away." d. "You will need to take some IV steroids." ANS: A Since histamine is not the mediator of a type IV reaction such as with poison ivy, antihistamines will not provide relief. The nurse should educate the client about this. The client does not need to be seen right away. The client may or may not need steroids; they may be given either IV or orally A client with Sjögren's syndrome reports dry skin, eyes, mouth, and vagina. What nonpharmacologic comfort measure does the nurse suggest? a. Frequent eyedrops b. Home humidifier c. Strong moisturizer d. Tear duct plugs ANS: B A humidifier will help relieve many of the client's Sjögren's syndrome symptoms. Eyedrops and tear duct plugs only affect the eyes, and moisturizer will only help the skin. A client is receiving plasmapheresis as treatment for Goodpasture's syndrome. When planning care, the nurse places highest priority on interventions for which client problem? a. Reduced physical activity related to the disease's effects on the lungs b. Inadequate family coping related to the client's hospitalization c. Inadequate knowledge related to the plasmapheresis process d. Potential for infection related to the site for organism invasion ANS: D Physical diagnoses take priority over psychosocial diagnoses, so inadequate family coping and inadequate knowledge are not the priority. The client has a potential for infection because plasmapheresis is an invasive procedure. Reduced activity is manifested by changes in vital signs, oxygenation, or electrocardiogram, and/or reports of chest pain or shortness of breath. There is no information in the question to indicate that the client is experiencing reduced physical activity. A nurse has educated a client on an epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen). What statement by the client indicates additional instruction is needed? a. "I don't need to go to the hospital after using it." b. "I must carry two EpiPens with me at all times." c. "I will write the expiration date on my calendar." d. "This can be injected right through my clothes." ANS: A Clients should be instructed to call 911 and go to the hospital for monitoring after using the EpiPen. The other statements show good understanding of this treatment. A client having severe allergy symptoms has received several doses of IV antihistamines. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's bedside glucose reading. b. Instruct the client not to get up without help. c. Monitor the client frequently for tachycardia. d. Record the client's intake, output, and weight. ANS: B Antihistamines can cause drowsiness, so for the client's safety, he or she should be instructed to call for assistance prior to trying to get up. Hyperglycemia and tachycardia are side effects of sympathomimetics. Fluid and sodium retention are side effects of corticosteroids. A client is in the hospital and receiving IV antibiotics. When the nurse answers the client's call light, the client presents an appearance as shown below: What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3 mg IV push immediately. b. Apply oxygen by facemask at 100% and a pulse oximeter. c. Ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team. d. Reassure the client that these manifestations will go away ANS: C The nurse should ensure the client's airway is patent and either call the Rapid Response Team or delegate this to someone else. Epinephrine needs to be administered right away, but not without a prescription by the physician unless standing orders exist. The client may need oxygen, but a patent airway comes first. Reassurance is important, but airway and calling the Rapid Response Team are the priorities. A client suffered an episode of anaphylaxis and has been stabilized in the intensive care unit. When assessing the client's lungs, the nurse hears the following sounds. What medication does the nurse prepare to administer? (Click the media button to hear the audio clip.) a. Albuterol (Proventil) via nebulizer b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IM c. Epinephrine 1:10,000 5 mg IV push d. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV push ANS: A The nurse has auscultated wheezing in the client's lungs and prepares to administer albuterol, which is a bronchodilator, or assists respiratory therapy with administration. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine. Epinephrine is given during an acute crisis in a concentration of 1:1000. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid. The nursing student is studying hypersensitivity reactions. Which reactions are correctly matched with their hypersensitivity types? (Select all that apply.) a. Type I - Examples include hay fever and anaphylaxis b. Type II - Mediated by action of immunoglobulin M (IgM) c. Type III - Immune complex deposits in blood vessel walls d. Type IV - Examples are poison ivy and transplant rejection e. Type V - Examples include a positive tuberculosis test and sarcoidosis ANS: A, C, D Type I reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and include hay fever, anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma. Type III reactions consist of immune complexes that form and deposit in the walls of blood vessels. Type IV reactions include responses to poison ivy exposure, positive tuberculosis tests, and graft rejection. Type II reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin G, not IgM. Type V reactions include Graves' disease and B-cell gammopathies. A client in the family practice clinic reports a 2-week history of an "allergy to something." The nurse obtains the following assessment and laboratory data: Physical Assessment Data Laboratory Results Reports sore throat, runny nose, headache Posterior pharynx is reddened Nasal discharge is seen in the back of the throat Nasal discharge is creamy yellow in color Temperature 100.2° F (37.9° C) Red, watery eyes White blood cell count: 13,400/mm3 Eosinophil count: 11.5% Neutrophil count: 82% About what medications and interventions does the nurse plan to teach this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Elimination of any pets b. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimaton) c. Future allergy scratch testing d. Proper use of decongestant nose sprays e. Taking the full dose of antibiotics ANS: B, C, D, E This client has manifestations of both allergic rhinitis and an overlying infection (probably sinus, as evidenced by purulent nasal drainage, high white blood cells, and high neutrophils). The client needs education on antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine, future allergy testing, the proper way to use decongestant nasal sprays, and ensuring that the full dose of antibiotics is taken. Since the nurse does not yet know what the client is allergic to, advising him or her to get rid of pets is premature Chapter 29: non infectious upper respiratory problems 1. A nurse is assessing a client who has suffered a nasal fracture. Which assessment should the nurse perform first? a. Facial pain b. Vital signs c. Bone displacement d. Airway patency ANS: D A patent airway is the priority. The nurse first should make sure that the airway is patent and then should determine whether the client is in pain and whether bone displacement or blood loss has occurred. 2. A nurse assesses a client who has a nasal fracture. The client reports constant nasal drainage, a headache, and difficulty with vision. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Collect the nasal drainage on a piece of filter paper. b. Encourage the client to blow his or her nose. c. Perform a test focused on a neurologic examination. d. Palpate the nose, face, and neck. ANS: A The client with nasal drainage after facial trauma could have a skull fracture that has resulted in leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). CSF can be differentiated from regular drainage by the fact that it forms a halo when dripped on filter paper. The other actions would be appropriate but are not as high a priority as assessing for CSF. A CSF leak would increase the client's risk for infection. 3. A nurse assesses a client who reports waking up feeling very tired, even after 8 hours of good sleep. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Contact the provider for a prescription for sleep medication. b. Tell the client not to drink beverages with caffeine before bed. c. Educate the client to sleep upright in a reclining chair. d. Ask the client if he or she has ever been evaluated for sleep apnea. ANS: D Clients are usually unaware that they have sleep apnea, but it should be suspected in people who have persistent daytime sleepiness and report waking up tired. Causes of the problem should be assessed before the client is offered suggestions for treatment. 4. A nurse teaches a client who has open vocal cord paralysis. Which technique should the nurse teach the client to prevent aspiration? a. Tilt the head back as far as possible when swallowing. b. Tuck the chin down when swallowing. c. Breathe slowly and deeply while swallowing. d. Keep the head very still and straight while swallowing. ANS: B The client with open vocal cord paralysis may aspirate. The nurse should teach the client to tuck in his or her chin during swallowing to prevent aspiration. Tilting the head back would increase the chance of aspiration. Breathing slowly would not decrease the risk of aspiration, but holding the breath would. Keeping the head still and straight would not decrease the risk for aspiration. 5. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea? a. A 26-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant b. A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease c. A 55-year-old woman who is 50 pounds overweight d. A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus ANS: C The client at highest risk would be the one who is extremely overweight. None of the other clients have risk factors for sleep apnea. 6. After teaching a client who is prescribed "voice rest" therapy for vocal cord polyps, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement indicates the client needs further teaching? a. "I will stay away from smokers to minimize inhalation of secondhand smoke." b. "When I speak, I will whisper rather than use a normal tone of voice." c. "For the next several weeks, I will not lift more than 10 pounds." d. "I will drink at least three quarts of water each day to stay hydrated." ANS: B Treatment for vocal cord polyps includes no speaking, no lifting, and no smoking. The client has to be educated not to even whisper when resting the voice. It is also appropriate for the client to stay out of rooms where people are smoking, to stay hydrated, and to use stool softeners. 7. A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing epistaxis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate Standard Precautions. b. Apply direct pressure. c. Sit the client upright. d. Loosely pack the nares with gauze. ANS: A The nurse should implement Standard Precautions and don gloves prior to completing the other actions. 8. A nurse cares for a client after radiation therapy for lung cancer. The client reports a sore throat. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the client to gargle with mouthwash containing lidocaine. b. Administer prescribed intravenous pain medications. c. Explain that soreness is normal and will improve in a couple days. d. Assess the client's neck for redness and swelling. ANS: A Mouthwashes and throat sprays containing a local anesthetic agent such as lidocaine or diphenhydramine can provide relief from a sore throat after radiation therapy. Intravenous pain medications may be used if local anesthetics are unsuccessful. The nurse should explain to the client that this is normal and assess the client's neck, but these options do not decrease the client's discomfort. 9. A nurse cares for a client who had a partial laryngectomy 10 days ago. The client states that all food tastes bland. How should the nurse respond? a. "I will consult the speech therapist to ensure you are swallowing properly." b. "This is normal after surgery. What types of food do you like to eat?" c. "I will ask the dietitian to change the consistency of the food in your diet." d. "Replacement of protein, calories, and water is very important after surgery." ANS: B Many clients experience changes in taste after surgery. The nurse should identify foods that the client wants to eat to ensure the client maintains necessary nutrition. Although the nurse should collaborate with the speech therapist and dietitian to ensure appropriate replacement of protein, calories, and water, the other responses do not address the client's concerns. 10. A nurse cares for a client who is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which action should the nurse take prior to surgery? a. Assess airway patency, breathing, and circulation. b. Administer prescribed intravenous pain medication. c. Assist the client to choose a communication method. d. Ambulate the client in the hallway to assess gait. ANS: C The client will not be able to speak after surgery. The nurse should assist the client to choose a communication method that he or she would like to use after surgery. Assessing the client's airway and administering IV pain medication are done after the procedure. Although ambulation promotes health and decreases the complications of any surgery, this client's gait should not be impacted by a total laryngectomy and therefore is not a priority. 11. While assessing a client who has facial trauma, the nurse auscultates stridor. The client is anxious and restless. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Contact the provider and prepare for intubation. b. Administer prescribed albuterol nebulizer therapy. c. Place the client in high-Fowler's position. d. Ask the client to perform deep-breathing exercises. ANS: A Facial and neck tissue edema can occur in clients with facial trauma. Airway patency is the highest priority. Clients who experience stridor and hypoxia, manifested by anxiety and restlessness, should be immediately intubated to ensure airway patency. Albuterol decreases bronchi and bronchiole inflammation, not facial and neck edema. Although putting the client in high-Fowler's position and asking the client to perform breathing exercises may temporarily improve the client's comfort, these actions will not decrease the underlying problem or improve airway patency. 12. A nurse is caring for a client who has sleep apnea and is prescribed modafinil (Provigil). The client asks, "How will this medication help me?" How should the nurse respond? a. "This medication will treat your sleep apnea." b. "This sedative will help you to sleep at night." c. "This medication will promote daytime wakefulness." d. "This analgesic will increase comfort while you sleep." ANS: C Modafinil is helpful for clients who have narcolepsy (uncontrollable daytime sleep) related to sleep apnea. This medication promotes daytime wakefulness. 13. A nurse cares for a client who has packing inserted for posterior nasal bleeding. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's pain level. b. Keep the client's head elevated. c. Teach the client about the causes of nasal bleeding. d. Make sure the string is taped to the client's cheek. ANS: D The string should be attached to the client's cheek to hold the packing in place. The nurse needs to make sure that this does not move because it can occlude the client's airway. The other options are good interventions, but ensuring that the airway is patent is the priority objective. 14. A nurse teaches a client to use a room humidifier after a laryngectomy. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Add peppermint oil to the humidifier to relax the airway." b. "Make sure you clean the humidifier to prevent infection." c. "Keep the humidifier filled with water at all times." d. "Use the humidifier when you sleep, even during daytime naps." ANS: B Priority teaching related to the use of a room humidifier focuses on infection control. Clients should be taught to meticulously clean the humidifier to prevent the spread of mold or other sources of infection. Peppermint oil should not be added to a humidifier. The humidifier should be refilled with water as needed and should be used while awake and asleep. 1. A nurse assesses a client who is 6 hours post-surgery for a nasal fracture and has nasal packing in place. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Observe for clear drainage. b. Assess for signs of bleeding. c. Watch the client for frequent swallowing. d. Ask the client to open his or her mouth. e. Administer a nasal steroid to decrease edema. f. Change the nasal packing. ANS: A, B, C, D The nurse should observe for clear drainage because of the risk for cerebrospinal fluid leakage. The nurse should assess for signs of bleeding by asking the client to open his or her mouth and observing the back of the throat for bleeding. The nurse should also note whether the client is swallowing frequently because this could indicate postnasal bleeding. A nasal steroid would increase the risk for infection. It is too soon to change the packing, which should be changed by the surgeon the first time. 2. A nurse assesses a client who has developed epistaxis. Which conditions in the client's history should the nurse identify as potential contributors to this problem? (Select all that apply.) a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hypertension c. Leukemia d. Cocaine use e. Migraine f. Elevated platelets ANS: B, C, D Frequent causes of nosebleeds include trauma, hypertension, leukemia and other blood dyscrasias, inflammation, tumor, dry air, blowing or picking the nose, cocaine use, and intranasal procedures. Diabetes, migraines, and elevated platelets and cholesterol levels do not cause epistaxis. 3. A nurse assesses a client who has facial trauma. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.) a. Stridor b. Nasal stuffiness c. Edema of the cheek d. Ecchymosis behind the ear e. Eye pain f. Swollen chin ANS: A, D Stridor is a sign of airway obstruction and requires immediate intervention. Ecchymosis, or bruising, behind the ear is called "battle sign" and indicates basilar skull fracture. Nasal stuffiness, edema of the cheek or chin, and eye pain do not interfere with respirations or neurologic function, and therefore are not priorities for immediate intervention. 4. A registered nurse (RN) cares for clients on a surgical unit. Which clients should the RN delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)? (Select all that apply.) a. A 32-year-old who had a radical neck dissection 6 hours ago b. A 43-year-old diagnosed with cancer after a lung biopsy 2 days ago c. A 55-year-old who needs discharge teaching after a laryngectomy d. A 67-year-old who is awaiting preoperative teaching for laryngeal cancer e. An 88-year-old with esophageal cancer who is awaiting gastric tube placement ANS: B, E The nurse can delegate stable clients to the LPN. The client who had a biopsy 2 days ago and the client who is awaiting gastric tube placement are stable. The client who is 6 hours post-surgery is not yet stable. The RN is the only one who can perform discharge and preoperative teaching; teaching cannot be delegated. 5. A nurse teaches a client who is being discharged after a fixed centric occlusion for a mandibular fracture. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "You will need to cut the wires if you start vomiting." b. "Eat six soft or liquid meals each day while recovering." c. "Irrigate your mouth every 2 hours to prevent infection." d. "Sleep in a semi-Fowler's position after the surgery." e. "Gargle with mouthwash that contains Benadryl once a day." ANS: A, B, C, D The client needs to know how to cut the wires in case of emergency. If the client vomits, he or she may aspirate. The client should also be taught to eat soft or liquid meals multiple times a day, irrigate the mouth with a Waterpik to prevent infection, and sleep in a semi-Fowler's position to assist in avoiding aspiration. Mouthwash with Benadryl is used for clients who have mouth pain after radiation treatment; it is not used to treat pain in a client with a mandibular fracture. 6. A nurse is assessing clients on a rehabilitation unit. Which clients are at greatest risk for asphyxiation related to inspissated oral and nasopharyngeal secretions? (Select all that apply.) a. A 24-year-old with a traumatic brain injury b. A 36-year-old who fractured his left femur c. A 58-year-old at risk for aspiration following radiation therapy d. A 66-year-old who is a quadriplegic and has a sacral ulcer e. An 80-year-old who is aphasic after a cerebral vascular accident ANS: A, C, D, E Risk for asphyxiation related to inspissated oral and nasopharyngeal secretions is caused by poor oral hygiene. Clients at risk include those with altered mental status and level of consciousness (traumatic brain injury), dehydration, an inability to communicate (aphasic) and cough effectively (quadriplegic), and a risk of aspiration (aspiration precautions). The client with a fractured femur is at risk fo